[Q3] FAR Study Group 2014 - Page 121

Viewing 15 replies - 1,801 through 1,815 (of 2,797 total)
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  • #599285
    Anonymous
    Inactive

    @Jpowell — That would be correct if you were using the par method. This problem calls for the cost method.

    The par method considers what the amount was from original issuance. The cost method doesn't.

    #599286

    @bobcat & @jpowell:

    so from the trend of questions, i see that cost method you can reverse all of your apic so my second entry is right and then anything over apic will be a debit to retained earnings. @bobcat – you would only decreases retained earnings by teh amount over apic, not the full amount

    Then for par value method you take into account the $ value of apic per share.

    BEC: 65 - 79* - 84 DONE
    AUD: 65 - 76 DONE
    REG: 63 - 77 DONE
    FAR: 65 - 63 - 67 - 69 - 73 - 71 - 83 DONE

    Becker Notes & Flashcards, Wiley Test Bank, Ninja MCQ

    #599287
    jpowell31
    Participant

    it's funny because i am literally reviewing this right now. i'm at the stage where…when i'm doing HW problems and know what method i'm using, i got it down. but when i have to remember which method is being used and how it's different my anxiety kicks in and i draw a blank. under two weeks of FT studying to make it work!

    i think @bobcat is right

    Original issue:

    DR Cash 1,100,000

    CR Common stock 1,000,000

    CR APIC 100,000 – common stock

    Acquired (no APIC entry so none to offset loss against later)

    DR Tstock 480,000

    CR Cash 480,000

    Reissue

    Dr Cash 360,000

    CR T-Stock 480,000

    CR RE 120,000

    #599288
    jpowell31
    Participant

    par method you calculate the gain or loss when acquiring the t-stock so an APIC account would be created to offset any g/l later on reissuance.

    #599289
    jpowell31
    Participant

    beckers example is confusing because they reissue half at a gain and half at a loss so you can offset partial loss against the APIC recorded through the gain by recording the gain entry first…… :S

    #599290
    jpowell31
    Participant

    another confusing point that may help clarify – the original issuance APIC can not be used to offset tstock g/l – “APIC-t-stock” is separate

    #599291

    the second entry i had was per ninja mcq answers. You have to use up your apic first, before you go to your retained earnings, my question was just about the allocation or amount of apic you could use first. Also there is no gain/loss on t/stock transaction because theres no income statement impact.

    @jpowell – i agree with your first two entries for issue and reacquisition, but i think the selling of t/s is recorded as:

    dr. cash 360k

    dr. apic 100k

    dr. re 20k

    cr. t/s 480k

    Per Ninja:

    Journal entry to record reacquisition of 30,000 shares at $16 per share using the cost method:

    Dr. Treasury Shares 480,000

    Cr. Cash 480,000

    Journal entry to record sale of treasury shares (30,000 shares at $12 per share):

    Dr. Cash 360,000

    Dr. Paid-in Capital 100,000

    Dr. Retained Earnings 20,000

    Cr. Treasury Shares 480,000

    When the initial issue of public stock was made, the 100,000 shares sold at $1 above the par value of $10. This resulted in a balance of $100,000 in the additional paid-in capital account. The $120,000 loss on sale should first be used to reduce additional paid-in capital to zero ($100,000) and debit the remainder (20,000) to retained earnings. Treasury stock transactions should never impact the net income for the current year.

    BEC: 65 - 79* - 84 DONE
    AUD: 65 - 76 DONE
    REG: 63 - 77 DONE
    FAR: 65 - 63 - 67 - 69 - 73 - 71 - 83 DONE

    Becker Notes & Flashcards, Wiley Test Bank, Ninja MCQ

    #599292

    12 more days of this crap, plus a full work week. i sort of want it to go fast, but at the same time you always need mroe time for this stuff

    BEC: 65 - 79* - 84 DONE
    AUD: 65 - 76 DONE
    REG: 63 - 77 DONE
    FAR: 65 - 63 - 67 - 69 - 73 - 71 - 83 DONE

    Becker Notes & Flashcards, Wiley Test Bank, Ninja MCQ

    #599293

    Standard Co. spent $10,000,000 on its new software package that is to be used only for internal use. The amount spent is for costs after the application development stage. The economic life of the product is expected to be three years. The equipment on which the package is to be used is being depreciated over five years. What amount of expense should Standard report on its income statement for the first full year?

    A. $0 (my answer)

    B. $2,000,000

    C. $3,333,333 (correct answer)

    D. $10,000,000

    Ninja reasoning: Costs incurred to develop software for internal use are capitalized after the application development stage is reached (in accordance with FASB ASC 350-40-35-4). The costs are amortized over the benefited periods—three years in this case.

    I selected $0 because per my notes costs for preliminary project stage are expensed, and costs after preliminary project stage are expensed. Also the above answer says that costs are capitalized after application development stage is reached, and the question above stages that costs are after the application development stage. so why are they saying there is an expense? I thought no expense because you capitalize it. Or are they referring to amortization expense?

    I really hope to god that the questions on teh exam are more direct because this is making my head spin.

    BEC: 65 - 79* - 84 DONE
    AUD: 65 - 76 DONE
    REG: 63 - 77 DONE
    FAR: 65 - 63 - 67 - 69 - 73 - 71 - 83 DONE

    Becker Notes & Flashcards, Wiley Test Bank, Ninja MCQ

    #599294

    nvm im just driving myself crazy over here.. expense on income statement can be expense incurred in preliminary stage, and amortization expense taken on capitalized costs after preliminary stage.

    BEC: 65 - 79* - 84 DONE
    AUD: 65 - 76 DONE
    REG: 63 - 77 DONE
    FAR: 65 - 63 - 67 - 69 - 73 - 71 - 83 DONE

    Becker Notes & Flashcards, Wiley Test Bank, Ninja MCQ

    #599295
    jpowell31
    Participant

    ahhh that's how i would think it works but becker's example is confusing as they only have the one and it has a gain and then a loss and the APIC is only reduced by the amount accounted for in the gain JE (not the original issuance)…. now i don't know what to think.

    #599296
    jpowell31
    Participant

    i can't wait for the next two weeks to be over but i agree…i could always use more time. i just bought a new apartment and move in the week i get back from the exam so news of passing would be excellentttttttttt – i could celebrate so many things and not worry about preserving my brain cells. then it's slow season at work until about November and i could be a person again. in the real world. interacting with other people. grindstone.

    #599297

    @jpowell thats awesome!! congrats on the new apartment!!!! i hope we both get good news on the 22nd!!!

    also, i know exactly what example you are talking about in becker, and its a terrible terrible example! esp how it says this transaction was made after the preceding transaction.. like wth becker really can anything be simple

    BEC: 65 - 79* - 84 DONE
    AUD: 65 - 76 DONE
    REG: 63 - 77 DONE
    FAR: 65 - 63 - 67 - 69 - 73 - 71 - 83 DONE

    Becker Notes & Flashcards, Wiley Test Bank, Ninja MCQ

    #599298
    jpowell31
    Participant

    if you have becker look at F7 page 10 – now i need to know!

    #599299
    hopefulcpa8
    Member

    Do you guys do all of the Becker “optional” questions?

    AUD 84
    BEC 83
    REG 77
    FAR 78

    DONE!!!

Viewing 15 replies - 1,801 through 1,815 (of 2,797 total)
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