[Q3] FAR Study Group 2014 - Page 105

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  • #599041
    M.O.D.
    Member

    @ Anna

    It seems that the 80,000 remittance was collected from the students.

    This is simultaneously a reduction in AR transferred and a payment against the loan payable (of 450,000) on the books.

    BA Mathematics, UC Berkeley
    Certificates in CPA and EA preparation, College of San Mateo
    CMA I 420, II 470
    FAR 91, AUD Feb 2015 (Gleim self-study)

    #599042
    Anonymous
    Inactive

    It must have been an assignment of A/R where the loan payment = proceeds from a/r. I am still angry at this question and all receivables for being so confusing

    #599043
    M.O.D.
    Member

    Yes, it seems they repackaged the AR into a loan. Maybe because they are long term AR (tuition paid over one year perhaps).

    BA Mathematics, UC Berkeley
    Certificates in CPA and EA preparation, College of San Mateo
    CMA I 420, II 470
    FAR 91, AUD Feb 2015 (Gleim self-study)

    #599044
    ahugemistake
    Participant

    Where did they get the present value number!? Are we suppose to calculate this ourselves?

    Simms Corporation reports under IFRS. Simms issued 2,000 $1,000 convertible bonds at par, with an annual interest rate of 5% when the market was 8%. The bonds are due in 5 years and each $1,000 bond is convertible into 3 shares of common stock. At what amount would Simms record the equity component of the bond?

    $ 6,000

    $ 239,569

    $1,760,431

    $2,000,000

    ANSWER>

    Under IFRS, convertible debt must be separated into its debt and equity components. To do this, discount the bond at market interest rates as in US GAAP. The liability component is the discounted amount and the equity component is the residual of the cash received less the discounted amount. Calculations are as follows:

    Face amount of the bonds: 2,000 × $1,000 = $2,000,000

    Present value of $1 for the principal ($2,000,000 × 0.68058) = $ 1,361,160

    Present value of an ordinary annuity for the interest ($100,000 × 3.99271) = $ 399,271

    Value of the liability = $ 1,760,431

    Value of the equity ($2,000,000 – $1,760,431) = $ 239,569

    Journal entry at issuance:

    Cash $2,000,000

    Bonds Payable $1,760,431

    Equity – conversion option $239,569

    FAR - 78*
    AUD - 66, 79
    REG - 73, 76
    BEC - 79

    #599045
    JamesBJames
    Participant

    I would just do it without the decimal numbers.

    Present value of $1 for the principal: 2000000 * 1 / 1.08^5 = 1361166

    (or simplify 1 / 1.08^5 to .68058 first)

    Present value of an ordinary annuity for the interest: 100000 / 1.08 + 100000 / 1.08^2 […] + 100000 / 1.08^5 = 399271

    Second one's a little lengthy, though.

    FAR: May 1st, 2014 - 91
    AUD: May 29th, 2014 - 97!
    BEC: July 16th, 2014 - 91
    REG: August 29th, 2014 - 88

    Licensed December 2015

    Feel free to add me on LinkedIn by clicking my username!

    #599046
    Anonymous
    Inactive

    Does the market rate 8% have to do with anything?

    Oh I see, never mind

    #599047
    ahugemistake
    Participant

    Thanks James, I will try to keep this straight on exam day. Aren't the PV values usually given?

    FAR - 78*
    AUD - 66, 79
    REG - 73, 76
    BEC - 79

    #599048
    ahugemistake
    Participant

    Anna, how is your review coming so far. I am very nervous but am going to commit to my exam date. I have been doing multiple choice questions, but feel that I still keep getting questions wrong. This is scary to me.

    FAR - 78*
    AUD - 66, 79
    REG - 73, 76
    BEC - 79

    #599049
    Anonymous
    Inactive

    I actually thought I was doing OK until I started reviewing freaking notes receivable. So fed up with PV sh*t and everything related to it. My current ninja score is like 72% or so, very disappointed in myself.

    What are you using for review?

    #599050
    ahugemistake
    Participant

    I'm using CPAExcel+WileyTB

    I have about 900 questions to go, and the last time I took a full practice exam, I got like a 50%. I am comfortable with the NFP/GOV questions because I do at work, but my weaknesses are in bonds, DTA/DTL, and foreign currency. Defintiely a long way to go for me, but I am going to studying all weekend.

    FAR - 78*
    AUD - 66, 79
    REG - 73, 76
    BEC - 79

    #599051
    Melans
    Member

    Why isn't this answer A?

    Wilson Corp. experienced a $50,000 decline in the market value of its inventory in the first quarter of its fiscal year. Wilson had expected this decline to reverse in the third quarter, and in fact, the third quarter recovery exceeded the previous decline by $10,000. Wilson's inventory did not experience any other declines in market value during the fiscal year. What amounts of loss and/or gain should Wilson report in its interim financial statements for the first and third quarters?

    First quarter Third quarter

    a. $0 $10,000 gain

    b.$50,000 loss $50,000 gain

    c. $0 $0

    d.$50,000 loss $60,000 gain

    Explanation

    Choice “c” is correct. Temporary market declines in inventory need not be recognized at interim when a turn-around can reasonably be expected to occur before the end of the fiscal year.

    AUD 7/30/12 73; 12/2/13 85
    BEC 7/19/13 81
    REG 8/2/14 83
    FAR - Jan 2015

    #599052
    Anonymous
    Inactive

    “C” is correct because Wilson expected the decline to reverse in the 3rd quarter. On temporary losses a loss is not recognized initially (in this case in the 1st quarter). I believe gains are only recognized to the extent of permanent declines. Since this wasn't an expected permanent decline no gain is recognized.

    #599053
    Anonymous
    Inactive

    I hate bonds and LT debt!!!!

    #599054
    jstay
    Participant

    @bobcat87, I'm with you on that, though i think i got bonds with warrants down good-both ways

    just got my nts today..figuring if i should take it 24th of august or the 31st..either way nerve racking

    #599055

    If you have $60,000 pretax income under the cash basis method of accounting, and then your receivables increase by $20K and payables decrease by $15K during the year, what would be your pretax income under the accrual method of accounting?

    It seems like you would add the $20K increase in receivables since you wouldn't record a journal entry for that under the cash method, but you would debit AR and credit Revenue under the accrual method, and you wouldn't do anything with the $15K decrease in AP since that would equal a cash disbursement and an incurred expense under both methods. The answer states that you should add both the $20K and the $15K for a total of $95K but I am not understanding why you would add the $15K given my reasoning above… Can anyone help me understand this? 🙂

    B - ✔️ 70, 72, 82 (07/2014)
    A - ✔️ 71, 76 (05/2014)
    R - ✔️ 76 (10/2014)
    F - ✔️ 56, 68, 73, 67, 77 (08/2014)

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