Came across an odd question in B2:
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Spring Co. had two divisions, A and B. Division A created Product X, which could be sold on the outside market for $25 and used variable costs of $15.
Division B could take Product X and apply additional variable costs of $40 to create Product Y, which could be sold for $100. Division B received a special order for a large amount of Product Y.
If Division A were operating at full capacity, which of the following prices should Division A charge Division B for the Product X needed to fill the special order?
A. $15
B. $20
C. $25
D. $40
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I originally got this wrong, but then I thought about it some more. When dealing with full capacity, the minimum acceptable price is VC(product X) + OC(product X). The variable cost is $15, and the opportunity cost is the $10 profit that division A foregoes by not selling it on the outside market. That sums to $25. Right logic?
I just wonder, why in the world does Becker talk about transfer pricing in the answer? It says that the best transfer pricing model is based on market price. Is that a shortcut you could use instead of calculating VC + OC separately?
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