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August 30, 2014 at 3:33 pm #188294
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November 18, 2014 at 11:42 pm #628579
mb0363Member@delrese this is a tought one, probably wouldn't have got it.
In the selling year you recognize:
1. Loss from Sale = 100,000
2. Loss from Operations = 500,000
And of course discontinued operations are below the line net of tax.
The selling loss is calculated as SP – FV.
Therefore, if the selling price is 400,000 less than the CV and the FV was 300,000 less than the CV 400-300= 100k.
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FAR - PASSNovember 19, 2014 at 1:32 am #628580
Determined CPAParticipantFor governmental accounting, does anyone have any tricks on remembering what is considered
1. other financing sources
2. nonoperating revenue
3. operating revenue
4. capital contributions
every time I get a question asking me to classify something into one of these categories, I get it wrong.
A - 75
B - 78 God is good.
F - 77 Answered prayers.
R - 84! Done!!Paperwork sent - waiting for license!!
Still on a cloud and in shock. Through God, all things will happen.November 19, 2014 at 1:51 am #628581
mb0363MemberDoes this forum freeze up from time to time? I posted an hour ago and its not showing up…
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FAR - PASSNovember 19, 2014 at 7:59 am #628583
AnonymousInactive@mb0363 Thanks! So basically, is it because the difference from the carrying value created an additional $100,000 loss in year 2, that we count only the $100,000 loss on the sale, and the $500,000 operating loss in discontinued ops? ….in other words, there was no impairment loss in year 2, just operating loss, and loss on sale? & to calculate that loss on sale ($100,000), we had to base it off of SP, CV, & FV?
November 19, 2014 at 1:51 pm #628584
mb0363Member@delreesem yes i think so. except the last part. i had a typo in my previous response and was unable to edit it because glitches in the forum last night. When you sell you subtract SP – FV. Thats why its 300 – 400 = (100).
in the year it is discovered you will have a
1. impairment loss FV-BV
2. loss from operations (whole year regardless of when discovered)
in the year it is sold you will have a
1. loss from sale SP-FV
2. loss from operations (until date sold)
ALL below the line net of tax.
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FAR - PASSNovember 19, 2014 at 2:01 pm #628585
mb0363Memberwell i took my bond homework from a 47 to a 70%. and leases from 60% to 78%
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FAR - PASSNovember 19, 2014 at 5:11 pm #628586
mb0363MemberI'm debating on moving my exam up. I test the 25th but I'm thinking of taking it Sunday. I feel like the longer I wait the more I'm forgetting…and quite honestly i am soooo tired of studying at this point its draining. What do you guys think? I think itll be around 35$.
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FAR - PASSNovember 19, 2014 at 5:58 pm #628587November 19, 2014 at 6:16 pm #628588November 19, 2014 at 6:51 pm #628589
GabeParticipantI hate non monetary exchanges…
Land
FV- 190
BV- 105
Machinery
CV 210
BV 260
Abe exchanged land and paid $30k for a piece of machinery. There is commercial substance. What are the JE's?
Below are the correct JEs..my question is why is Machinery DR for the amount of LAND given up + cash?!
*edit- because the FV of the machinery is not apparent, we take the BV of the LAND…that makes sense *rolls eyes*
DR Machinery 220
DR Gain 85
CR cash 30
CR Land given up 105
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CISA- Experience will be completed by August 2016November 19, 2014 at 6:54 pm #628590
iman_aMemberCan someone please explain to me why we credit “income tax benefit-deferred” when we reverse a DTL?
Thanks in advance!
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FAR - 11/28November 19, 2014 at 7:40 pm #628591
TroblinParticipantCan someone help explain this simulation on capitalized construction costs? I know that the rule is that you capitalize the lesser of actual interest expense or WA Expenditures * interest rate. I just can't seem to wrap my head around how this is applied on the following simulation:
Cougar Co. built a warehouse during Year 2 and Year 3. The following payments were made during construction for building materials, labor, and overhead:
January 1, Year 2 April 1, Year 2 October 1, Year 2 January 15, Year 3
$130,000 $240,000 $200,000 $350,000
In addition, Cougar:
• borrowed $300,000 at 12% on January 1, Year 2, under a construction note.
• had bonds outstanding of $100,000 at 10% on January 1, Year 2; interest is payable annually on December 31.
• had notes payable outstanding of $300,000 at 7% on January 1, Year 2; interest is payable annually on December 31.
• completed construction on the building, which was ready for immediate use on March 1, Year 3.
Items Amount
The weighted-average accumulated expenditures for Year 2 $ 360,000
The interest incurred for all borrowings for Year 2 $ 67,000
The avoidable interest for Year 2 $ 40,650
The interest capitalized for Year 2 $ 40,650
The interest expense for Year 2 $ 26,350
The long-term construction of a warehouse for company use as a discrete project qualifies for interest capitalization. The costs expended in the building process have to be estimated as weighted-average accumulated expenditures for a principal amount for interest cost capitalization. This involves assessing how much was expended in the building process over the year in question.
Expenditures Part of Year 2
$130,000 × 12/12 = $130,000 January to December
$240,000 × 9/12 = 180,000 April to December
$200,000 × 3/12 = 50,000 October to December
Weighted-average
accumulated expenditures = $360,000
The last amount was paid in Year 3, and does not affect Year 2.
The interest rate to figure out the interest cost to capitalize is based specifically on construction-related debt if there is more of it than the weighted-average accumulated expenditures. The weighted-average accumulated expenditures are $360,000 and the specific construction-related debt is only $300,000. The additional $60,000 is applied as principal to a blended rate based on the remaining debt outstanding.
The company has only $300,000 of specific construction-related debt paying 12%. The other debt is as follows:
• The company has bonds of $100,000 paying 10% interest, or $10,000 each year.
• The company has notes of $300,000 paying 7% interest, or $21,000 each year.
• The blended rate for the other debt is based on the total interest and principal: $10,000 + $21,000 = Total interest of $31,000. $100,000 + $300,000 = $400,000 total principal. The blended rate for the additional $60,000 is $31,000 ÷ $400,000, or 7.75%.
So, the “avoidable interest” on construction is the first $300,000 of the $360,000 of weighted-average accumulated expenditures at the specific debt-related interest rate. The additional $60,000 is multiplied by the blended rate of 7.75%.
$300,000 × .12 = $36,000
$60,000 × .0775 = 4,650
Total avoidable interest = $40,650
The total interest on all borrowings this year is:
$300,000 × .12 = $36,000
$100,000 × .10 = 10,000
$300,000 × .07 = 21,000
Total actual interest incurred = $67,000
The capitalized interest is the lower of the avoidable or actual interest, $40,650 (the avoidable). The remaining interest is an expense: $67,000 − $40,650 = $26,350.
(The references for this question are sections 2213.19–.23 and .26–.35 in the Financial Accounting and Reporting Reference Volume.)
FASB ASC 835-20-25-2 and 25-3; FASB ASC 835-20-30-2 through 30-6
FAR: 85(11/22/2014) - Becker(full)/Ninja MCQ (5 day cram)
AUD: 79 (2/1/2015) -Becker/Ninja MCQ/Ninja Notes
REG: 84(4/19/2015) -Becker/Ninja MCQ/Ninja Notes
BEC: 83 (7/13/2015) -Becker/Ninja MCQ/Ninja NotesDate I Got My Life Back!: 8/4/2015 🙂
November 19, 2014 at 8:04 pm #628592
GabeParticipantThis is a sim from Ninja, correct? What part are you having trouble with? The weighted average expenditures? Total interest? Accrued?
CPA, CFE
CISA- Experience will be completed by August 2016November 19, 2014 at 10:21 pm #628593
TroblinParticipantI'm have trouble calculating the avoidable interest.
Most of the MCQ I’ve seen calculate the weighted average expenditures (360,000 in this example), and multiply it by the interest rate on the construction loan.
This number is usually the “avoidable interest” and is compared to the actual interest for the period and the less of the two is capitalized.
If I were attempting this problem on the exam, I would have incorrectly used the construction interest rate – 12%*360k(WAE) = 43,200(avoidable interest) and capitalize this amount instead of the 40,650(AI) computed above.
Perhaps you can help explain?
FAR: 85(11/22/2014) - Becker(full)/Ninja MCQ (5 day cram)
AUD: 79 (2/1/2015) -Becker/Ninja MCQ/Ninja Notes
REG: 84(4/19/2015) -Becker/Ninja MCQ/Ninja Notes
BEC: 83 (7/13/2015) -Becker/Ninja MCQ/Ninja NotesDate I Got My Life Back!: 8/4/2015 🙂
November 19, 2014 at 10:58 pm #628594
mb0363MemberJones Corp.'s capital structure was as follows:
December 31
Year 1
Year 2
Outstanding shares of stock:
Common
110,000
110,000
Convertible preferred
10,000
10,000
8% convertible bonds
$ 1,000,000
$ 1,000,000
During Year 2, Jones paid dividends of $3.00 per share on its preferred stock. The preferred shares are convertible into 20,000 shares of common stock. The 8% bonds are convertible into 30,000 shares of common stock. Net income for Year 2 is $850,000. Assume that the income tax rate is 30%.
The diluted earnings per share for Year 2 is:
a. $5.66
b. $6.26 CORRECT
c. $5.81
d. $5.48
Adjusted net income
Net income =$ 850,000
Add: Interest expense ($1,000,000 x 8%) =80,000
Less: Tax deduction eliminated (30%) =(24,000)
Adjusted net income =$ 906,000
Adjusted shares outstanding
Shares outstanding – common =110,000
Conversion of preferred shares= 20,000
Conversion of bonds =30,000
Adjusted shares outstanding = 160,000
My question is, what about dividends paid on preferred stock in the numerator?
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