FAR Study Group Q4 2014 - Page 85

  • Creator
    Topic
  • #188294
    jeff
    Keymaster

    SO I know every test is different but does anyone have any insight on what has been heavily tested recently? I take the exam Monday and I need to narrow my focus….Thanks!

    Jeff Elliott, CPA (KS) | Another71 | NINJA CPA | NINJA CMA | NINJA CPE

Viewing 15 replies - 1,261 through 1,275 (of 1,629 total)
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    Replies
  • #628579
    mb0363
    Member

    @delrese this is a tought one, probably wouldn't have got it.

    In the selling year you recognize:

    1. Loss from Sale = 100,000

    2. Loss from Operations = 500,000

    And of course discontinued operations are below the line net of tax.

    The selling loss is calculated as SP – FV.

    Therefore, if the selling price is 400,000 less than the CV and the FV was 300,000 less than the CV 400-300= 100k.

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    #628580
    Determined CPA
    Participant

    For governmental accounting, does anyone have any tricks on remembering what is considered

    1. other financing sources

    2. nonoperating revenue

    3. operating revenue

    4. capital contributions

    every time I get a question asking me to classify something into one of these categories, I get it wrong.

    A - 75
    B - 78 God is good.
    F - 77 Answered prayers.
    R - 84! Done!!

    Paperwork sent - waiting for license!!
    Still on a cloud and in shock. Through God, all things will happen.

    #628581
    mb0363
    Member

    Does this forum freeze up from time to time? I posted an hour ago and its not showing up…

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    #628583
    Anonymous
    Inactive

    @mb0363 Thanks! So basically, is it because the difference from the carrying value created an additional $100,000 loss in year 2, that we count only the $100,000 loss on the sale, and the $500,000 operating loss in discontinued ops? ….in other words, there was no impairment loss in year 2, just operating loss, and loss on sale? & to calculate that loss on sale ($100,000), we had to base it off of SP, CV, & FV?

    #628584
    mb0363
    Member

    @delreesem yes i think so. except the last part. i had a typo in my previous response and was unable to edit it because glitches in the forum last night. When you sell you subtract SP – FV. Thats why its 300 – 400 = (100).

    in the year it is discovered you will have a

    1. impairment loss FV-BV

    2. loss from operations (whole year regardless of when discovered)

    in the year it is sold you will have a

    1. loss from sale SP-FV

    2. loss from operations (until date sold)

    ALL below the line net of tax.

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    #628585
    mb0363
    Member

    well i took my bond homework from a 47 to a 70%. and leases from 60% to 78%

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    #628586
    mb0363
    Member

    I'm debating on moving my exam up. I test the 25th but I'm thinking of taking it Sunday. I feel like the longer I wait the more I'm forgetting…and quite honestly i am soooo tired of studying at this point its draining. What do you guys think? I think itll be around 35$.

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    #628587
    Gabe
    Participant

    @mb I say go for it…

    CPA, CFE
    CISA- Experience will be completed by August 2016

    #628588
    salring
    Participant

    @MB go for it while everything is still fresh don't push it forward.

    #628589
    Gabe
    Participant

    I hate non monetary exchanges…

    Land

    FV- 190

    BV- 105

    Machinery

    CV 210

    BV 260

    Abe exchanged land and paid $30k for a piece of machinery. There is commercial substance. What are the JE's?

    Below are the correct JEs..my question is why is Machinery DR for the amount of LAND given up + cash?!

    *edit- because the FV of the machinery is not apparent, we take the BV of the LAND…that makes sense *rolls eyes*

    DR Machinery 220

    DR Gain 85

    CR cash 30

    CR Land given up 105

    CPA, CFE
    CISA- Experience will be completed by August 2016

    #628590
    iman_a
    Member

    Can someone please explain to me why we credit “income tax benefit-deferred” when we reverse a DTL?

    Thanks in advance!

    AUD - 96
    BEC - 85
    REG - 81
    FAR - 11/28

    #628591
    Troblin
    Participant

    Can someone help explain this simulation on capitalized construction costs? I know that the rule is that you capitalize the lesser of actual interest expense or WA Expenditures * interest rate. I just can't seem to wrap my head around how this is applied on the following simulation:

    Cougar Co. built a warehouse during Year 2 and Year 3. The following payments were made during construction for building materials, labor, and overhead:

    January 1, Year 2 April 1, Year 2 October 1, Year 2 January 15, Year 3

    $130,000 $240,000 $200,000 $350,000

    In addition, Cougar:

    • borrowed $300,000 at 12% on January 1, Year 2, under a construction note.

    • had bonds outstanding of $100,000 at 10% on January 1, Year 2; interest is payable annually on December 31.

    • had notes payable outstanding of $300,000 at 7% on January 1, Year 2; interest is payable annually on December 31.

    • completed construction on the building, which was ready for immediate use on March 1, Year 3.

    Items Amount

    The weighted-average accumulated expenditures for Year 2 $ 360,000

    The interest incurred for all borrowings for Year 2 $ 67,000

    The avoidable interest for Year 2 $ 40,650

    The interest capitalized for Year 2 $ 40,650

    The interest expense for Year 2 $ 26,350

    The long-term construction of a warehouse for company use as a discrete project qualifies for interest capitalization. The costs expended in the building process have to be estimated as weighted-average accumulated expenditures for a principal amount for interest cost capitalization. This involves assessing how much was expended in the building process over the year in question.

    Expenditures Part of Year 2

    $130,000 × 12/12 = $130,000 January to December

    $240,000 × 9/12 = 180,000 April to December

    $200,000 × 3/12 = 50,000 October to December

    Weighted-average

    accumulated expenditures = $360,000

    The last amount was paid in Year 3, and does not affect Year 2.

    The interest rate to figure out the interest cost to capitalize is based specifically on construction-related debt if there is more of it than the weighted-average accumulated expenditures. The weighted-average accumulated expenditures are $360,000 and the specific construction-related debt is only $300,000. The additional $60,000 is applied as principal to a blended rate based on the remaining debt outstanding.

    The company has only $300,000 of specific construction-related debt paying 12%. The other debt is as follows:

    • The company has bonds of $100,000 paying 10% interest, or $10,000 each year.

    • The company has notes of $300,000 paying 7% interest, or $21,000 each year.

    • The blended rate for the other debt is based on the total interest and principal: $10,000 + $21,000 = Total interest of $31,000. $100,000 + $300,000 = $400,000 total principal. The blended rate for the additional $60,000 is $31,000 ÷ $400,000, or 7.75%.

    So, the “avoidable interest” on construction is the first $300,000 of the $360,000 of weighted-average accumulated expenditures at the specific debt-related interest rate. The additional $60,000 is multiplied by the blended rate of 7.75%.

    $300,000 × .12 = $36,000

    $60,000 × .0775 = 4,650

    Total avoidable interest = $40,650

    The total interest on all borrowings this year is:

    $300,000 × .12 = $36,000

    $100,000 × .10 = 10,000

    $300,000 × .07 = 21,000

    Total actual interest incurred = $67,000

    The capitalized interest is the lower of the avoidable or actual interest, $40,650 (the avoidable). The remaining interest is an expense: $67,000 − $40,650 = $26,350.

    (The references for this question are sections 2213.19–.23 and .26–.35 in the Financial Accounting and Reporting Reference Volume.)

    FASB ASC 835-20-25-2 and 25-3; FASB ASC 835-20-30-2 through 30-6

    FAR: 85(11/22/2014) - Becker(full)/Ninja MCQ (5 day cram)
    AUD: 79 (2/1/2015) -Becker/Ninja MCQ/Ninja Notes
    REG: 84(4/19/2015) -Becker/Ninja MCQ/Ninja Notes
    BEC: 83 (7/13/2015) -Becker/Ninja MCQ/Ninja Notes

    Date I Got My Life Back!: 8/4/2015 🙂

    #628592
    Gabe
    Participant

    This is a sim from Ninja, correct? What part are you having trouble with? The weighted average expenditures? Total interest? Accrued?

    CPA, CFE
    CISA- Experience will be completed by August 2016

    #628593
    Troblin
    Participant

    @Gabe

    I'm have trouble calculating the avoidable interest.

    Most of the MCQ I’ve seen calculate the weighted average expenditures (360,000 in this example), and multiply it by the interest rate on the construction loan.

    This number is usually the “avoidable interest” and is compared to the actual interest for the period and the less of the two is capitalized.

    If I were attempting this problem on the exam, I would have incorrectly used the construction interest rate – 12%*360k(WAE) = 43,200(avoidable interest) and capitalize this amount instead of the 40,650(AI) computed above.

    Perhaps you can help explain?

    FAR: 85(11/22/2014) - Becker(full)/Ninja MCQ (5 day cram)
    AUD: 79 (2/1/2015) -Becker/Ninja MCQ/Ninja Notes
    REG: 84(4/19/2015) -Becker/Ninja MCQ/Ninja Notes
    BEC: 83 (7/13/2015) -Becker/Ninja MCQ/Ninja Notes

    Date I Got My Life Back!: 8/4/2015 🙂

    #628594
    mb0363
    Member

    Jones Corp.'s capital structure was as follows:

    December 31

    Year 1

    Year 2

    Outstanding shares of stock:

    Common

    110,000

    110,000

    Convertible preferred

    10,000

    10,000

    8% convertible bonds

    $ 1,000,000

    $ 1,000,000

    During Year 2, Jones paid dividends of $3.00 per share on its preferred stock. The preferred shares are convertible into 20,000 shares of common stock. The 8% bonds are convertible into 30,000 shares of common stock. Net income for Year 2 is $850,000. Assume that the income tax rate is 30%.

    The diluted earnings per share for Year 2 is:

    a. $5.66

    b. $6.26 CORRECT

    c. $5.81

    d. $5.48

    Adjusted net income

    Net income =$ 850,000

    Add: Interest expense ($1,000,000 x 8%) =80,000

    Less: Tax deduction eliminated (30%) =(24,000)

    Adjusted net income =$ 906,000

    Adjusted shares outstanding

    Shares outstanding – common =110,000

    Conversion of preferred shares= 20,000

    Conversion of bonds =30,000

    Adjusted shares outstanding = 160,000

    My question is, what about dividends paid on preferred stock in the numerator?

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