Oak Co. leased equipment for its entire nine-year useful life, agreeing to pay $50,000 at the start of the lease term on December 31, Year 1, and $50,000 annually on each December 31 for the next eight years. Oak paid $3,000 in initial direct costs at lease inception. The present value on December 31, Year 1, of the nine lease payments over the lease term, using the rate implicit in the lease which Oak knows to be 10% was $316,500. The December 31, Year 1, the present value of the lease payments using Oak's incremental borrowing rate of 12% was $298,500. Oak accounts for the finance lease under IFRS and uses straight-line depreciation. What amount should Oak report as finance lease asset on its December 31, Year 2 balance sheet?
finance lease asset is then amortized over the lease term/useful life of 9 years:
Annual depreciation = $319,500/9 = $35,500
On December 31, Year 2, after recording one year of depreciation, the finance lease asset will be reported as:
Finance lease asset, 12/31/Y2
=
Finance lease asset, 12/31/Y1 – Year 2 depreciation
=
$319,500 – $35,500
=
$284,000
My question is why don't we deduct 50000 from 319500 since we made a payment at the beginning of the lease