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May 14, 2014 at 3:33 pm #185549
jeffKeymasterFree Study Planner, Notes, Audio, Flashcards: https://www.another71.com/cpa-exam-study-plan/
Free CPA Exam Survival Guide: https://www.another71.com/cpa-exam-survival-guide/
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August 13, 2014 at 2:46 pm #599873
jstayParticipant@ D C I'm probably gonna get the ninja mcq today. you find it helpful. I've already worked becker 2-3 times most sections and not taking it until the 31st so i feel like i need a supplement because otherwise I'm just going to memorize answers
August 13, 2014 at 2:58 pm #599874
D CMemberyah you need to switch it up so your not getting too familiar with the questions. I think the audio is good if you have time to listen to it… but def get the mcqs… if you don't find your notes are too much or want a simplified version of all the materials ninja notes can be useful.. with the 10 point package u get all that stuff plus ninja blitz videos which are surprisingly helpful also…. quick short lessons you can go the all the materials at a high-level in 2 hours….
@Jeff – another71.com… where is my commission? lol
B - 80
A - 71, 67, 77
R - 71, 77
F - 72, 77
DONE!!
Becker Self-study all the way! Did use Ninja Notes & Audio for FAR.August 13, 2014 at 2:59 pm #599875
D CMemberWand, Inc., has adopted FASB ASC 205-20 (Presentation of Financial Statements—Discontinued Operations). On October 1, 20X1, Wand, Inc., committed itself to a formal plan to sell its Kam division's assets. On that date, Wand estimated that the loss from the disposal of assets in February 20X2 would be $25,000. Wand also estimated that Kam would incur operating losses of $100,000 for the period of October 1, 20X1, through December 31, 20X1, and $50,000 for the period January 1, 20X2, through February 28, 20X2. These estimates were materially correct. Assuming that the Kam division qualifies as a component, disregarding income taxes, what should Wand report as loss from discontinued operations in its comparative 20X1 and 20X2 income statements?
A. 20X1: $175,000; 20X2: $0
B. 20X1: $125,000; 20X2: $50,000
C. 20X1: $100,000; 20X2: $75,000
D. 20X1: $0; 20X2: $175,00
B - 80
A - 71, 67, 77
R - 71, 77
F - 72, 77
DONE!!
Becker Self-study all the way! Did use Ninja Notes & Audio for FAR.August 13, 2014 at 3:08 pm #599876
jstayParticipantsweet thanks, also it works on a mac?
August 13, 2014 at 3:11 pm #599877
jstayParticipantDC, i wanna say B but how come we wouldn't take the whole loss from 20X1?
wouldn't the 25,000 expected in 20×2 be an impairment loss reported in 20×1
August 13, 2014 at 3:46 pm #599878
jeffKeymasterAugust 13, 2014 at 3:47 pm #599879
GutiParticipantAugust 13, 2014 at 4:08 pm #599880
ahugemistakeParticipantDropping by to wish HopefulCPA0601goodluck tomorrow, and a happy birthday as well!
FAR - 78*
AUD - 66, 79
REG - 73, 76
BEC - 79August 13, 2014 at 4:47 pm #599881
Iggy1985Member@DC – It was one of the many errors in the Wiley test bank, the question should have looked like this;
Each of the following is a component of the changes in the net assets available for benefits of a
defined benefit pension plan trust, except
a. The net change in fair value of each significant class of investments
b. The net change in the actuarial present value of accumulated plan benefits
c. Contributions from the employer and participants
d. Benefits paid to participants
FAR - 89 (8/19/14) Wiley TB, Wiley Book, Books from School, Ninja Audio/Notes
AUD - 92 (10/14/14) Wiley TB, Wiley Book, Ninja Audio
BEC - 82 (5/8/15) Mostly Ninja MCQ, sprinkles of Becker lectures and Ninja Audio
REG - (8/14/15)August 13, 2014 at 4:52 pm #599882
Iggy1985MemberI am doing pretty well on pensions, just completed like 4 pension worksheets and now I feel a lot more comfortable with the material. However I just did a Wiley sim and have a question on it maybe someone can help me with.
STR Inc. provides the following information about its defined benefit pension plan for the year 20X2:
Accumulated OCI — PSC, 1/1/year 2 $150,000
Actual and expected return on plan assets 43,000
Benefits paid 20,000
Contribution to the plan 95,000
Prior service cost amortization 10,000
Projected benefit obligation, 1/1/year 2 250,000
Plan assets, 1/1/year 2 175,000
Service cost 50,000
Interest/discount (settlement rate) 10%
In the pension worksheet column OCI – PSC, shouldn't there be a beginning balance of 150,000, then with 10,000 amortized, the ending balance will be 140,000? For the OCI-PSC Column Wiley says;
Beginning Balance 0 (I put 150,000)
Amortization of Prior Svc Cost -10,000
Journal Entry -10,000
Accumulated OCI 150,000 (I put 140,000 cause I thought they were asking for the ending AOCI…)
Ending Balance 140,000
Sims always make me more confused when I think I have the material down 🙁
FAR - 89 (8/19/14) Wiley TB, Wiley Book, Books from School, Ninja Audio/Notes
AUD - 92 (10/14/14) Wiley TB, Wiley Book, Ninja Audio
BEC - 82 (5/8/15) Mostly Ninja MCQ, sprinkles of Becker lectures and Ninja Audio
REG - (8/14/15)August 13, 2014 at 4:52 pm #599883
jpowell31Participantis it a iggy?
i don't even know how i feel anymore. NUMB
jumping on a plane today. exam's tomorrow. i'll check in with you guys next week.
August 13, 2014 at 4:54 pm #599884
Iggy1985Member@jp I think it's B – found from the internet : The net change in the actuarial present value of accumulated plan benefits refers to the liability side of the pension plan, rather than to the plan assets. This amount is the change from the previous reporting period of the amount required to pay the present value of promised benefits. It is one measure of the change in the obligation of the plan. Changes in net assets refers to the asset side of the plan. Assets are typically held by a trust company that provides financial statements that report the amount of assets available to pay pension benefits, and changes in those assets.
I hear you on feeling numb, and I read that as ‘jumping off a plane today' lol 😀
Sending Good Mojo (Juju?) and Luck your way 🙂
FAR - 89 (8/19/14) Wiley TB, Wiley Book, Books from School, Ninja Audio/Notes
AUD - 92 (10/14/14) Wiley TB, Wiley Book, Ninja Audio
BEC - 82 (5/8/15) Mostly Ninja MCQ, sprinkles of Becker lectures and Ninja Audio
REG - (8/14/15)August 13, 2014 at 5:02 pm #599885
Iggy1985Member@DC To your question, I would think C since it's like having something available for sale and the losses apply to the periods they are incurred… or is it B because the disposal costs of 25k is like a reduction in fair value impairment loss in year 1? arggh lol
FAR - 89 (8/19/14) Wiley TB, Wiley Book, Books from School, Ninja Audio/Notes
AUD - 92 (10/14/14) Wiley TB, Wiley Book, Ninja Audio
BEC - 82 (5/8/15) Mostly Ninja MCQ, sprinkles of Becker lectures and Ninja Audio
REG - (8/14/15)August 13, 2014 at 5:34 pm #599886
D CMember@jpowell… good luck… let us know how it goes if you can…
The answer is B. 125k in 20×1, and 20×2 50k….
I thought it was kind of strange that they included the loss expected on the disposal in the year before it was disposed.
Only thing I can think of is rule of conservatism but I picked C which was wrong. First time seeing it like that.
B - 80
A - 71, 67, 77
R - 71, 77
F - 72, 77
DONE!!
Becker Self-study all the way! Did use Ninja Notes & Audio for FAR.August 13, 2014 at 5:38 pm #599887 -
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