[Q3] BEC Study Group 2014 - Page 100

  • Creator
    Topic
  • #185552
    jeff
    Keymaster

    @h0wdyus

    Incorrect

    The answer is B. Comparable sales.

    “The use of comparable sales is not an income approach to valuation of a business, it is a market approach. Under the comparable sales approach, the value of a business is determined by comparing it to other entities with comparable characteristics for which the value is more readily determinable.”

    This was a tricky one

    Jeff Elliott, CPA (KS) | Another71 | NINJA CPA | NINJA CMA | NINJA CPE

Viewing 15 replies - 1,486 through 1,500 (of 2,289 total)
  • Author
    Replies
  • #595109
    h0wdyus
    Member

    stoleway is back in action. 🙂

    FAR - 81 29th Aug 2013
    AUD - 84
    REG - 82
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    FROM NJ

    #595110
    stoleway
    Participant

    I thought it was call provision but its wrong, see explanation below. I'm forced to dispute it and maintain C

    B is correct

    Sinking funds are designed to reduce the risk to bondholders by gradually reducing the amount of debt the firm has outstanding. In order to enforce the sinking fund provision, the bonds are often used with a call provision. uf

    REG -63│ 84!!
    BEC- 59│70│ 71 │78!
    AUD- 75!
    FAR- 87!

    Mass-CPA

    #595111
    h0wdyus
    Member

    🙂 another poorly worded question to make sure it is not testing your knowledge.. Keep em coming .

    FAR - 81 29th Aug 2013
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    FROM NJ

    #595112
    stoleway
    Participant

    Which of the following is an advantage of computer systems over manual processing?

    A Elimination of computational errors and errors processing routine transactions

    B Significant cost reductions to the organization in both terms of time and money

    C Faster processing times resulting in shorter accounting cycles

    D Elimination of antiquated processes and procedures

    REG -63│ 84!!
    BEC- 59│70│ 71 │78!
    AUD- 75!
    FAR- 87!

    Mass-CPA

    #595113
    h0wdyus
    Member

    I am going to go with A.. though I am leaning towards B too.

    FAR - 81 29th Aug 2013
    AUD - 84
    REG - 82
    BEC - 89 29th Aug 2014
    Using Yager

    FROM NJ

    #595114
    stoleway
    Participant

    I thought B was very compelling but A is correct.

    REG -63│ 84!!
    BEC- 59│70│ 71 │78!
    AUD- 75!
    FAR- 87!

    Mass-CPA

    #595115
    h0wdyus
    Member

    Cost for the computer systems can be substantial too. So I chose A. B can be it too. Trickery.

    FAR - 81 29th Aug 2013
    AUD - 84
    REG - 82
    BEC - 89 29th Aug 2014
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    FROM NJ

    #595116
    Portia
    Member

    @schizokitten

    I am having the same problem w B3.1.

    did you get a response with a fix. If yes, can you please post.

    Thanks,

    Portia

    #595117
    WANNABE_CPA
    Member

    I cant understand this question :

    For the next 2 yrs, a lease is estimated to have an operating net cash inflow of $7500 per annum, before adjusting for $5000 per annum tax basis lease amortization, and a 40% tax rate. The present value of an ordinary annuity of $1 per year at 10% for 2 years is $1.74. What is the lease's after tax present value using 10% discount factor?

    A. $11310

    B. $9570

    C. $2610

    D. $4350

    FAR : 68, 74, 83 Thank you God 🙂
    BEC : 78 (8/27) 🙂
    REG : 72 ,80 (2/25) 🙂
    AUD : 69,67, 07/23

    #595118
    stoleway
    Participant

    @WANNABE_CPA

    The investment will generate $7500 cash inflow

    Depreciation will be $5000

    NPV = PV factor x after tax free cashflow

    (NOTE: this is another method of solving for NPV when initial investment is not given)

    Free Cashflow = 7500 x .6 ( after tax operating cash flow) + 5000 x .4 (depreciation tax shield)

    = 4500 + 2000

    = 6500

    Therefore

    NPV=1.74 X 6500

    =11310

    REG -63│ 84!!
    BEC- 59│70│ 71 │78!
    AUD- 75!
    FAR- 87!

    Mass-CPA

    #595119
    WANNABE_CPA
    Member

    Thanks stoleway…got it now 🙂

    FAR : 68, 74, 83 Thank you God 🙂
    BEC : 78 (8/27) 🙂
    REG : 72 ,80 (2/25) 🙂
    AUD : 69,67, 07/23

    #595120
    RandomAlt
    Member

    Playing lunch break catch-up…

    I like this question…I feel like this is the type of question that trips people up on the exam if they don't read carefully.

    Kim Co.'s profit center Zee had 2004 operating income of $200,000 before a $50,000 imputed interest charge for using Kim's assets. Kim's aggregate net income from all of its profit centers was $2,000,000. During 2004, Kim declared and paid dividends of $30,000 and $70,000 on its preferred and common stock, respectively.

    Zee's 2004 residual income was

    $140,000

    $143,000

    $147,000

    $150,000

    FAR - [10/07/2013 --> 66] [07/07/2014 --> 86]
    BEC - [08/31/2014 --> 86]
    AUD - [11/24/2014 --> 88]
    REG - [02/14/2015 --> 92]

    #595121
    stoleway
    Participant

    operating income of $200,000 – $50,000 imputed interest charge = $150,000?

    REG -63│ 84!!
    BEC- 59│70│ 71 │78!
    AUD- 75!
    FAR- 87!

    Mass-CPA

    #595122
    h0wdyus
    Member

    No idea.

    FAR - 81 29th Aug 2013
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    FROM NJ

    #595123
    h0wdyus
    Member

    I was thinking of dividend and total income of 2 mill and the residual income after declaring dividend.

    RI = Net Income less cost of capital is also residual income.

    FAR - 81 29th Aug 2013
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Viewing 15 replies - 1,486 through 1,500 (of 2,289 total)
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