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So I thought I understood uncollectible accounts, turns out I don’t. Question reads:
On March 31, Vale Co. had an unadjusted credit balance of $1,000 in its allowance for uncollectible accounts. An analysis of Vale’s trade accounts receivable at that date revealed the following:
0-30 days = 60,000, 5% estimated uncollectible
31-60 days = 4,000, 10% uncollectible
Over 60 days = 2,000, $1,400 uncollectible
Answer: $4,800
So, if there is an existing unadjusted credit balance of $1,000, wouldn’t that have been a debit to bad debt expense, and a credit to allowance for uncollectible accounts? Then, when I compute the above items I get $4,800 which is the estimate for uncollectible so would be a debit to bad debt expense, credit to allowance for doubtful accounts of $4,800. Wouldn’t that make the total allowance $5,800? My answer says that it is $4,800 and that the bad debt expense for the year is $3,800. What am I missing here? Are my journal entries wrong? I thought bad debt expense and the allowance would match up like depreciation and accumulated depreciation?
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