FAR Study Group Q3 2016 - Page 10

Viewing 15 replies - 136 through 150 (of 213 total)
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  • #820215
    Claudia408
    Participant

    oh yes thanks Jimmy! So what does the Dr to Fund Balance mean here? I understand the Cr to encumbrances is the outstanding PO.

    BEC - 75 (3x)
    AUD - 78 (3x)
    REG - 67, 66, Aug 1
    FAR - 54, Sept 8

    #820248
    pharaoh
    Participant

    @Claudia408 – You can say the Fund Balance is the govt version of equity section on regular income statement. You know how at the end of the year you add/close the NI to Retained Earnings. It is the same idea, you close the revenue and expenditures to Fund Balance Account. If you have a sample of a governmental funds balance sheet, you see the Fund Balance has different categories too, assigned, committed, etc based on their restriction/use

    FAR 8/2016
    AUD 1/2017
    REG TBD
    BEC TBD

    #820266
    pharaoh
    Participant

    I meant the govt version of equity section in regular Balance sheet* ……..sorry brain dead 🙂

    FAR 8/2016
    AUD 1/2017
    REG TBD
    BEC TBD

    #820275
    pharaoh
    Participant

    @Operation_CPA – Your JE (2) is not right, that's the cost method. In Par, you have to reverse APIC when you purchase

    Dr. TS 8,000 (8*1000)
    Dr. APIC-CS 1,000 (1*1000)
    Cr. Cash 8000
    Cr. APIC-TS 1,000 <—-You are going to use this in the final sale of 500 @5

    The final sale
    Dr. Cash 2,500
    Dr. APIC-TS 1,000
    Dr. RE 500
    Cr. TS 4000

    By the way, on your JE (3), the APIC should be CS not TS

    FAR 8/2016
    AUD 1/2017
    REG TBD
    BEC TBD

    #820560
    Operation_CPA
    Participant

    @jimmy

    Ahhhhhh I see. Appreciate the help!!

    #820827
    Claudia408
    Participant

    Can someone please help with this Pension JE? I understand the debit to OCI but not seeing why the JE is 450,000.

    At the beginning of year 1, a company amends its defined benefit pension plan for an additional $500,000 in prior service cost. The amendment covers employees with a 10-year average remaining service life. At the end of year 1, what is the net entry to accumulated other comprehensive income, ignoring income tax effects?

    Answer: An adjustment to the terms of a defined benefit pension plan that increases prior service cost by $500,000 also increases the excess of the projected benefit obligation over the fair value of plan assets. It is recognized with an increase, or credit, to the additional liability and a debit to other comprehensive income (OCI). Since it covers employees with an average 10 year remaining service life, it will be amortized at the rate of $50,000 per year with an increase, or debit, to pension expense and a credit to OCI. The net effect on OCI is a debit of $450,000.

    BEC - 75 (3x)
    AUD - 78 (3x)
    REG - 67, 66, Aug 1
    FAR - 54, Sept 8

    #820947
    cpaMD86
    Participant

    @claudia408

    PSC is an element of Pension Expense that is amortized over the Avg Service Life.

    Amortization of PSC:

    500,000/10 (Avg Svc Life) = 50,000 is recognized per year as an element of pension expense.

    So, the net of PSC,450,000 (500-50), goes to OCI.

    FAR: 9/3

    #821133
    Teal
    Participant

    Hi everyone! My test is tomorrow. Not sure I am ready, but we will see! Good luck to everyone taking it this week.

    FAR (66,68) Aug 26
    REG (66) July 25
    AUD (66) December 1st
    BEC - October 3rd

    #821229
    CPYay
    Participant

    @Teal Geiger

    So is mine! What are your night-before plans? I'm going to do some MCQs on my weak areas, read the text a bit, and stop around 9pm to relax.

    #821253
    Teal
    Participant

    @CPYay I took the day off work, so I have being doing multiple choice all day!Was going to do more in my weak areas, but I am feeling burnt out for the day. I might do one more hour and then call it a day. My test is at 12:30 tomorrow, so I'll wake up early and maybe read my notes?

    FAR (66,68) Aug 26
    REG (66) July 25
    AUD (66) December 1st
    BEC - October 3rd

    #821571
    memoiree
    Participant

    For the year ended December 31, 20X1, Tyre Co. reported pretax financial statement income of $750,000. Its taxable income was $650,000. The difference is due to accelerated depreciation for income tax purposes. Tyre's effective income tax rate is 30%, and Tyre made estimated tax payments during 20X1 of $90,000. What amount should Tyre report as current income tax expense for 20X1?

    A.
    $105,000

    B.
    $135,000

    Correct C.
    $195,000

    D.
    $225,000

    Can someone explain why Deferred tax liability is not considered in this problem? Answer is C.

    #821601
    cpaMD86
    Participant

    @memoiree

    They're asking for current income tax expense. They've already given you taxable income, so all you have to do is multiply it by the enacted tax rate.

    PreTax Income
    (-) Permanent Differences
    __________________________

    (+/-) Temporary Differences

    ___________________________

    = Taxable Income

    FAR: 9/3

    #821604
    cpaMD86
    Participant

    @CPYAY and Teal

    Good luck to you both on your exam!

    FAR: 9/3

    #821709
    CPYay
    Participant

    Thanks! I had testing center nightmares last night haha.. no computers available.. noise everywhere.. even a group of pirates showed up. Then I woke up at 330am and couldn't get back to sleep. Dis gon be gud.

    #821757
    cpaMD86
    Participant

    @CPAYay

    LOL! That is hilarious. I hope I don't experience anything crazy like leading up to my exam next week.
    Back to these MCQs for me…

    FAR: 9/3

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