Hey guys, quick question on transactions lacking commercial substance that contain boot.
Becker has me a bit confused. In order to determine if boot is less than or greater than 25% of total consideration, do you calculate boot over the fv of asset given? Or boot over the fv of asset received? I ask because I thought it was fv boot received, however in the book (p F2-39 from 2012) they show boots percentage being calculated as (2500/12000) which is the fv of the machine given. However, in the explanation on the previous page of recognizing a gain proportionally, it says “…is less than 25% of the total considerations received…”
Any help? Is it in fact fv of asset given?
Thanks so much! Exam is Thursday. So super nervous!
Illinois
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