@Tootsie
At the end of year 1 the asset was revalued to 90K. Thats the new FV. In year 2 it is again revalued, and this time to $105K.
Year 1:
10K loss. Asset went from 100K to 90K.
Year 2:
10K gain to I/S. The FV of the asset went from 90K to 100K. Just like any normal FV adjustment for an asset owned.
5K gain to OCI. Any gain above the original cost goes to OCI. So gain from 100K (original cost) to $105K
A actually took my example above from an actual MCQ, so here is the answer per CPAexcel:
“Under IFRS, an increase in an assets fair value above original cost are recorded in a revaluation surplus account and any decreases in an assets fair value below the original cost are recorded as losses to the income statement. Therefore, the 10,000 decrease in year 1 would have been recorded as a loss to the income statement and the 15,000 increase in year 2 would be recorded as a 10,000 gain to the income statement and 5,000 gain in revaluation surplus (OCI).”
FAR - [10/07/2013 --> 66] [07/07/2014 --> 86]
BEC - [08/31/2014 --> 86]
AUD - [11/24/2014 --> 88]
REG - [02/14/2015 --> 92]