[Q2] FAR Study Group 2014 - Page 151

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    Topic
  • #183478
    jeff
    Keymaster

    I’ve had a few requests for April/May Study Groups…March will be here before you know it.

    In order to take an early April exam, you should begin studying…now. ๐Ÿ™‚

    Jeff Elliott, CPA (KS) | Another71 | NINJA CPA | NINJA CMA | NINJA CPE

Viewing 15 replies - 2,251 through 2,265 (of 6,668 total)
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  • #562766
    ChristieF
    Participant

    Good morning! Hope everyone got some good studying done – I never got a chance to make it online, but hopefully that'll change this week. Should be on randomly during the day this week as today is month end and once I get the closing done, the other departments handle the rest ๐Ÿ™‚

    For a small laugh to start off Monday… last night my 5 yr old wanted cuddle time as I reviewed my NINJA notes on my nook. Well, she knows I have a big test coming up and she asked, what are those mommy? (She saw the first page) I said they are some notes for my test that I need to read and study… oh, so you're going to test to be a NINJA, I thought you were doing something called CPA, that's cool. ๐Ÿ™‚ So stinkin cute.

    #562767
    Anonymous
    Inactive

    @NJPRU–Yes please. I need to find a way to make it stick. There are just a lot of steps to remember. How do you do it?

    #562768
    NJPRU
    Member

    Sure Mamma – here's the steps I take with the example from JRO, except I'm going to do it in the more conventional way instead of working backward to find the base (in his problem, he gave us the cost and the index)

    Year 1: Base = 100,000

    Year 2: Base = 120,000 (what was provided in JRO's problem was the cost of 128,400 and the index, see step #1)

    Year 3: Base = 116,000 (what was provided was the cost of 145,000 and the index, see step #1)

    Step #1: Find the Price Index

    I think it's essential for you to know how to get the index.. that is the key to solving this problem. If you can remember the index equation, Current Year Cost/Inventory (Cost) BASE, you're at a good spot.

    Solving the index for each Year:

    Year 1: Base = 100,000 which means that the index is 1 – essentially this is your starting point, there is no increase or decrease here, so your index = 1.

    Year 2: Base = 120,000 Cost = 128,400 —> Index = 1.07 (128,400/120,000)

    Year 3: Base = 116,000 Cost = 145,000 —> Index = 1.25 (145,000/116,000)

    Step 2: Applying your index to your base increase or decrease

    The second thing you have to remember is that your index is then multiplied by your BASE increase or decrease (Base increase/decrease x index). Now this can get tricky when you have a decrease in your base… a decrease in your base uses the prior years base number, while an increase in your base uses the calculated base index for that year.

    Solving the cost of your increase or decrease in BASE:

    Year 1: Base began with 100,000 —> your index is 1.00 (you started here) —> 100,000×1.00 = 100,000

    Year 2: Your BASE INCREASED (from Year 1), by 20,000 [ 100,000—>120,000 = +20,000 and therefore this number should be multiplied by your Year 2 index, noted above. (20,000×1.07 = 21,400 INCREASE)

    Year 3: TRICKY


    > Your BASE DECREASE (from Year 2), by 4,000 [ 120,000—> 116,000 ] = -4,000. With a decrease, you will use the PRIOR YEARS price index and NOT the index you calculated –> -4,000 decrease x 1.07 = 4,280 DECREASE

    From Step 2, here is a summary of your calculations:

    Year 1: 100,000×1.00 = 100,000

    Year 2: +20,000 (in base from previous year)x 1.07 = 21,400

    Year 3: -4,000 (in base from previous year)x1.07 = 4,280

    Your total Year 3 inventory = 100,000 + 21,400 – 4,290 = 117,120.

    To summarize your steps:

    Step #1: Calculate your price index = Current Cost/Cost BASE

    Step #2: Multiply your index by the increase or decrease from the previous year noting the following rules:

    1. First year index number (i.e. 100,000 from above) is ALWAYS 1.00

    2. base increase is multiplied by the index calculated in Step #1

    3. If there is a decrease in your base from the previous year, multiple decrease by the index for the prior year

    I know it's a lot, which is why i summed it up in several areas. Let me know if you have any questions – I had to put it up here quickly, so I hope I didnt miss anything.

    AUD: DONE
    FAR: DONE
    BEC: DONE
    REG: DONE

    IM GOING TO BE A CPA!!!!!

    #562769
    Anonymous
    Inactive
    #562770
    jrosen92770
    Participant

    Excellent explanation NJ. Thanks for taking the time to do the write-up.

    BEC - 5/26/2013 75
    REG - 8/31/2013 82
    AUD - 11/24/2013 74, 2/9/2014 92
    FAR - 5/25/2014 85

    NY CPA

    #562771
    Anonymous
    Inactive

    This is driving me nuts because I can't find an explanation in the Becker book:

    Q1: Find unrealized gain/loss Trading Security

    Cost: 150

    FV yr 1: 100

    FV yr 2: 155

    Unrealized gain = 155 – 100 = 55

    Q2: Find net unrealized gain/loss AFS Security

    FV yr 1: 120

    FV yr 2: 130

    Cost: 150

    Unrealized loss = 150 – 130 = 20

    Why does AFS use cost as the basis while Trading uses just the fair values? I thought both were FV based. I understand the mechanics of trading going to IS and AFS going to OCI, but I don't quite understand why you use cost for AFS calculations.

    #562772
    NJPRU
    Member

    CPA = The question for AFS specifically asks for NET unrealized whereas the question for the TS only asked for the uncrealized, therefore:

    Q1: Find unrealized gain/loss Trading Security

    Cost: 150

    FV yr 1: 100

    FV yr 2: 155

    Answer: since it's ONLY asking for the unrealized gain = FV YR1 – FV YR2 = 55

    NOW, Q2 asked for NET…

    Q2: Find net unrealized gain/loss AFS Security

    FV yr 1: 120

    FV yr 2: 130

    Cost: 150

    Unrealized loss = 150 – 130 = 20

    Answer: It's asking for NET, which takes nets together unrealized from Cost – FV Y1 + unrealized FV YR1 – FV YR2..

    Step #1: While understanding the mechanics, start with Cost and get the unrealized for YR1 = 150 @ cost vs 120 FV YR1 = unrealized loss of 30

    Step #2: At YR2 you have an unrealized gain from YR1 of 10 = FV YR1 of 120 vs FV YR2 of 130 = 10 unrealized gain

    You will then NET this together and get the unrealized loss of 20 (unrealized loss of 30 – unrealized gain of 10)

    ** What the problem isn't showing you is the steps to get to the NET portion – it's skipping the 30 unrealized loss and 10 unrealized gain and just netting the 150 cost and 130 FV at YR2.

    AUD: DONE
    FAR: DONE
    BEC: DONE
    REG: DONE

    IM GOING TO BE A CPA!!!!!

    #562773
    jrosen92770
    Participant

    Was the AFS sold?

    BEC - 5/26/2013 75
    REG - 8/31/2013 82
    AUD - 11/24/2013 74, 2/9/2014 92
    FAR - 5/25/2014 85

    NY CPA

    #562774
    Anonymous
    Inactive

    Thanks for the explanation! Becker not showing the full “net” process threw me off, it makes sense now.

    #562775
    Anonymous
    Inactive

    Thanks NJPRU!

    #562776
    jeff
    Keymaster
    #562777
    NJPRU
    Member

    I'm getting to the point during the day where I just want to go home and start studying! All I think about during the day is studying.

    DTL FS: Revenue up Expense down

    DTA FS: Revenue down Expenses up

    HIIIIYAHHH!

    AUD: DONE
    FAR: DONE
    BEC: DONE
    REG: DONE

    IM GOING TO BE A CPA!!!!!

    #562778
    Kenada
    Member

    NJPRU – Yep me too ๐Ÿ™‚

    CA Candidate. 05/27/2014 ~ 786/110
    I am done!!

    #562779
    ChristieF
    Participant

    Hey everyone! I have the HARDEST time understanding the sum-of-the-years digits depreciation method. I get straight-line and double-declining. Is there anyone who can explain this method? A sample question is below that I got stuck on and WTB isn't helping me…

    In January year 1 Colonial Company purchased equipment for $120,000, to be used in its manufacturing operations. The equipment was estimated to have a useful life of 8 years, with salvage value estimated at $12,000. Colonial considered various methods of depreciation and selected the sum-of-the-yearsโ€™ digits method. On December 31, year 2, the related allowance for accumulated depreciation should have a balance:

    $15,000 less than under the straight-line method.

    $15,000 less than under the double-declining balance method.

    $18,000 greater than under the straight-line method.

    $18,000 greater than under the double-declining balance method.

    The answer is $18,000 greater than under the straight-line method.

    #562780
    NYCaccountant
    Participant

    Just add up the total years so 1+2+3+4+5+6+7+8= 36 and then divide backwards.

    So first year 8/36*108,000=24,000

    Second Year 7/36*108,000=21,000

    Total is 45,000. Now if you did straight line, it's simply 108,000/8=13,500 per year * 2 years = 27,000

    Sum of digits is 18,000 higher.

    FAR - 93
    REG - 87
    BEC - 84!!!!
    AUD - 99!!!!!! CPA exam complete.

Viewing 15 replies - 2,251 through 2,265 (of 6,668 total)
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