- This topic has 6,668 replies, 191 voices, and was last updated 11 years, 6 months ago by
Kenada.
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February 6, 2014 at 9:58 pm #183478
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March 31, 2014 at 12:47 pm #562766
ChristieFParticipantGood morning! Hope everyone got some good studying done – I never got a chance to make it online, but hopefully that'll change this week. Should be on randomly during the day this week as today is month end and once I get the closing done, the other departments handle the rest ๐
For a small laugh to start off Monday… last night my 5 yr old wanted cuddle time as I reviewed my NINJA notes on my nook. Well, she knows I have a big test coming up and she asked, what are those mommy? (She saw the first page) I said they are some notes for my test that I need to read and study… oh, so you're going to test to be a NINJA, I thought you were doing something called CPA, that's cool. ๐ So stinkin cute.
March 31, 2014 at 12:52 pm #562767
AnonymousInactive@NJPRU–Yes please. I need to find a way to make it stick. There are just a lot of steps to remember. How do you do it?
March 31, 2014 at 1:23 pm #562768
NJPRUMemberSure Mamma – here's the steps I take with the example from JRO, except I'm going to do it in the more conventional way instead of working backward to find the base (in his problem, he gave us the cost and the index)
Year 1: Base = 100,000
Year 2: Base = 120,000 (what was provided in JRO's problem was the cost of 128,400 and the index, see step #1)
Year 3: Base = 116,000 (what was provided was the cost of 145,000 and the index, see step #1)
Step #1: Find the Price Index
I think it's essential for you to know how to get the index.. that is the key to solving this problem. If you can remember the index equation, Current Year Cost/Inventory (Cost) BASE, you're at a good spot.
Solving the index for each Year:
Year 1: Base = 100,000 which means that the index is 1 – essentially this is your starting point, there is no increase or decrease here, so your index = 1.
Year 2: Base = 120,000 Cost = 128,400 —> Index = 1.07 (128,400/120,000)
Year 3: Base = 116,000 Cost = 145,000 —> Index = 1.25 (145,000/116,000)
Step 2: Applying your index to your base increase or decrease
The second thing you have to remember is that your index is then multiplied by your BASE increase or decrease (Base increase/decrease x index). Now this can get tricky when you have a decrease in your base… a decrease in your base uses the prior years base number, while an increase in your base uses the calculated base index for that year.
Solving the cost of your increase or decrease in BASE:
Year 1: Base began with 100,000 —> your index is 1.00 (you started here) —> 100,000×1.00 = 100,000
Year 2: Your BASE INCREASED (from Year 1), by 20,000 [ 100,000—>120,000 = +20,000 and therefore this number should be multiplied by your Year 2 index, noted above. (20,000×1.07 = 21,400 INCREASE)
Year 3: TRICKY
> Your BASE DECREASE (from Year 2), by 4,000 [ 120,000—> 116,000 ] = -4,000. With a decrease, you will use the PRIOR YEARS price index and NOT the index you calculated –> -4,000 decrease x 1.07 = 4,280 DECREASEFrom Step 2, here is a summary of your calculations:
Year 1: 100,000×1.00 = 100,000
Year 2: +20,000 (in base from previous year)x 1.07 = 21,400
Year 3: -4,000 (in base from previous year)x1.07 = 4,280
Your total Year 3 inventory = 100,000 + 21,400 – 4,290 = 117,120.
To summarize your steps:
Step #1: Calculate your price index = Current Cost/Cost BASE
Step #2: Multiply your index by the increase or decrease from the previous year noting the following rules:
1. First year index number (i.e. 100,000 from above) is ALWAYS 1.00
2. base increase is multiplied by the index calculated in Step #1
3. If there is a decrease in your base from the previous year, multiple decrease by the index for the prior year
I know it's a lot, which is why i summed it up in several areas. Let me know if you have any questions – I had to put it up here quickly, so I hope I didnt miss anything.
AUD: DONE
FAR: DONE
BEC: DONE
REG: DONEIM GOING TO BE A CPA!!!!!
March 31, 2014 at 1:40 pm #562769
AnonymousInactiveMarch 31, 2014 at 1:41 pm #562770
jrosen92770ParticipantExcellent explanation NJ. Thanks for taking the time to do the write-up.
BEC - 5/26/2013 75
REG - 8/31/2013 82
AUD - 11/24/2013 74, 2/9/2014 92
FAR - 5/25/2014 85NY CPA
March 31, 2014 at 1:42 pm #562771
AnonymousInactiveThis is driving me nuts because I can't find an explanation in the Becker book:
Q1: Find unrealized gain/loss Trading Security
Cost: 150
FV yr 1: 100
FV yr 2: 155
Unrealized gain = 155 – 100 = 55
Q2: Find net unrealized gain/loss AFS Security
FV yr 1: 120
FV yr 2: 130
Cost: 150
Unrealized loss = 150 – 130 = 20
Why does AFS use cost as the basis while Trading uses just the fair values? I thought both were FV based. I understand the mechanics of trading going to IS and AFS going to OCI, but I don't quite understand why you use cost for AFS calculations.
March 31, 2014 at 1:52 pm #562772
NJPRUMemberCPA = The question for AFS specifically asks for NET unrealized whereas the question for the TS only asked for the uncrealized, therefore:
Q1: Find unrealized gain/loss Trading Security
Cost: 150
FV yr 1: 100
FV yr 2: 155
Answer: since it's ONLY asking for the unrealized gain = FV YR1 – FV YR2 = 55
NOW, Q2 asked for NET…
Q2: Find net unrealized gain/loss AFS Security
FV yr 1: 120
FV yr 2: 130
Cost: 150
Unrealized loss = 150 – 130 = 20
Answer: It's asking for NET, which takes nets together unrealized from Cost – FV Y1 + unrealized FV YR1 – FV YR2..
Step #1: While understanding the mechanics, start with Cost and get the unrealized for YR1 = 150 @ cost vs 120 FV YR1 = unrealized loss of 30
Step #2: At YR2 you have an unrealized gain from YR1 of 10 = FV YR1 of 120 vs FV YR2 of 130 = 10 unrealized gain
You will then NET this together and get the unrealized loss of 20 (unrealized loss of 30 – unrealized gain of 10)
** What the problem isn't showing you is the steps to get to the NET portion – it's skipping the 30 unrealized loss and 10 unrealized gain and just netting the 150 cost and 130 FV at YR2.
AUD: DONE
FAR: DONE
BEC: DONE
REG: DONEIM GOING TO BE A CPA!!!!!
March 31, 2014 at 1:59 pm #562773
jrosen92770ParticipantWas the AFS sold?
BEC - 5/26/2013 75
REG - 8/31/2013 82
AUD - 11/24/2013 74, 2/9/2014 92
FAR - 5/25/2014 85NY CPA
March 31, 2014 at 2:01 pm #562774
AnonymousInactiveThanks for the explanation! Becker not showing the full “net” process threw me off, it makes sense now.
March 31, 2014 at 2:01 pm #562775
AnonymousInactiveThanks NJPRU!
March 31, 2014 at 4:34 pm #562776
jeffKeymasterMarch 31, 2014 at 7:06 pm #562777
NJPRUMemberI'm getting to the point during the day where I just want to go home and start studying! All I think about during the day is studying.
DTL FS: Revenue up Expense down
DTA FS: Revenue down Expenses up
HIIIIYAHHH!
AUD: DONE
FAR: DONE
BEC: DONE
REG: DONEIM GOING TO BE A CPA!!!!!
March 31, 2014 at 7:24 pm #562778
KenadaMemberNJPRU – Yep me too ๐
CA Candidate. 05/27/2014 ~ 786/110
I am done!!March 31, 2014 at 7:38 pm #562779
ChristieFParticipantHey everyone! I have the HARDEST time understanding the sum-of-the-years digits depreciation method. I get straight-line and double-declining. Is there anyone who can explain this method? A sample question is below that I got stuck on and WTB isn't helping me…
In January year 1 Colonial Company purchased equipment for $120,000, to be used in its manufacturing operations. The equipment was estimated to have a useful life of 8 years, with salvage value estimated at $12,000. Colonial considered various methods of depreciation and selected the sum-of-the-yearsโ digits method. On December 31, year 2, the related allowance for accumulated depreciation should have a balance:
$15,000 less than under the straight-line method.
$15,000 less than under the double-declining balance method.
$18,000 greater than under the straight-line method.
$18,000 greater than under the double-declining balance method.
The answer is $18,000 greater than under the straight-line method.
March 31, 2014 at 7:45 pm #562780
NYCaccountantParticipantJust add up the total years so 1+2+3+4+5+6+7+8= 36 and then divide backwards.
So first year 8/36*108,000=24,000
Second Year 7/36*108,000=21,000
Total is 45,000. Now if you did straight line, it's simply 108,000/8=13,500 per year * 2 years = 27,000
Sum of digits is 18,000 higher.
FAR - 93
REG - 87
BEC - 84!!!!
AUD - 99!!!!!! CPA exam complete. -
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