BEC Study Group Q2 2015 - Page 27

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    Topic
  • #192519
    jeff
    Keymaster

    Welcome to the Q2 2015 CPA Exam Study Group for BEC.

    Economic Cycles (All Across the Land)https://www.another71.com/economic-cycles-rap/

    Posted by Another71 on Thursday, November 6, 2014

    Free NINJA: https://www.another71.com/cpa-exam-study-plan/

    AUD - 79
    BEC - 80
    FAR - 76
    REG - 92
    Jeff Elliott, CPA (KS)
    NINJA CPA | NINJA CMA | NINJA CPE | Another71
Viewing 15 replies - 391 through 405 (of 407 total)
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  • #683343
    nika_cpa
    Member

    110 hrs – 100 hrs (standard allowed) = 10 hrs extra worked

    10 hrs x $15 standard rate = $150 unfav. var.

    Becker self-study, Wiley Test Bank and books, Becker final review. NINJA MCQ bank and NINJA notes for BEC only!

    AUD - PASSED!
    FAR - PASSED!
    REG - PASSED!
    BEC - PASSED!

    #683344
    Anonymous
    Inactive

    Formula = Std rate (Actual hrs – Std Hrs)

    therefore you have = 15 (110- (1*100)) = $150

    #683345
    amaffei
    Participant

    Thanks Dee. The formula in my book states Std rate (Standard Hours – Actual Hours) which comes out to an unfavorable answer which confused me. Your formula has the flip – not sure if it matters – thank you for the resposne

    #683346
    Anonymous
    Inactive

    Hi @amaffei, i am using becker and it does say Actual hrs – std hours. Just think about it this way, if you budgeted to spend $50 on gas (Standard) but ended up spending $60(actual) you are at a loss of $10 which is unfavorable. Same thought process with hours, if you budgeted 6 hours for an activity but ended up spending 10 hours you've used an extra unplanned 4 hours, which is considered unfavourable. I hope that helps!

    #683347
    amaffei
    Participant

    Thanks Dee. That helps.

    #683348
    nika_cpa
    Member

    just to clarify Becker mnemonic calls for :

    it would be S – A =D (Standard-Actual=Difference)

    P=DA (price DM) Diff. x Actual quantity

    U=DS (Usage DM) Diff. x Stand. rate

    R=DA (Rate DL) Diff. x actual hrs

    E=DS (Efficiency DL) Diff x stand. rate

    But obviously you should use common sense when determining favor. vs unfov. variances….if used more actuan then unfav, or if your actual price is less then favor. and etc. I hope this helps!

    This mnemonic is the life saver during exam. But I only got one variance question on the actual exam.

    Becker self-study, Wiley Test Bank and books, Becker final review. NINJA MCQ bank and NINJA notes for BEC only!

    AUD - PASSED!
    FAR - PASSED!
    REG - PASSED!
    BEC - PASSED!

    #683349
    amaffei
    Participant

    Thanks Nike CPA …..what do u suggest I know going into the exam ….just throw out the main topics and specifications of that topic if possible….thanks

    #683350
    jeff
    Keymaster

    NINJA Christie: Moving on from BEC Failure

    "I failed. Again. I went through all of the emotions; wanting to cry, telling my husband I was going to give up and…

    Posted by Another71 on Saturday, May 30, 2015

    https://www.another71.com/cpa-exam-score-release-failure-not-option/

    AUD - 79
    BEC - 80
    FAR - 76
    REG - 92
    Jeff Elliott, CPA (KS)
    NINJA CPA | NINJA CMA | NINJA CPE | Another71
    #683351
    Troblin
    Participant

    Can someone help with this question? I can barely even understand the concept being tested..

    A department adds material at the beginning of a process and identifies defective units when the process is 40% complete. At the beginning of the period, there was no work-in-process. At the end of the period, the number of work-in-process units equaled the number of units transferred to finished goods. If all units in ending work-in-process were 66-2/3% complete, then ending work-in-process should be allocated as follows:

    A.

    50% of all normal defective unit costs

    B.

    40% of all normal defective unit costs

    C.

    50% of the material costs and 40% of the conversion costs of all normal defective unit costs

    D.

    None of the normal defective unit costs

    FAR: 85(11/22/2014) - Becker(full)/Ninja MCQ (5 day cram)
    AUD: 79 (2/1/2015) -Becker/Ninja MCQ/Ninja Notes
    REG: 84(4/19/2015) -Becker/Ninja MCQ/Ninja Notes
    BEC: 83 (7/13/2015) -Becker/Ninja MCQ/Ninja Notes

    Date I Got My Life Back!: 8/4/2015 🙂

    #683353
    Troblin
    Participant

    Can someone provide an explanation on why the answer is B opposed to A? I see the explanation, but I don't feel that I am grasping it properly.

    Based on potential sales of 500 units per year, a new product has estimated traceable costs of $990,000. What is the target price per unit to obtain a 15% profit margin on sales using the traditional markup calculation?

    A.

    $2,329

    Correct

    B.

    $2,277

    C.

    $1,980

    D.

    $1,935

    FAR: 85(11/22/2014) - Becker(full)/Ninja MCQ (5 day cram)
    AUD: 79 (2/1/2015) -Becker/Ninja MCQ/Ninja Notes
    REG: 84(4/19/2015) -Becker/Ninja MCQ/Ninja Notes
    BEC: 83 (7/13/2015) -Becker/Ninja MCQ/Ninja Notes

    Date I Got My Life Back!: 8/4/2015 🙂

    #683354

    @Troblin,

    500 units,

    500 units times X units = Sales revenue

    $990,000 cost,

    15% profit margin which means the profit is 15% of the sales revenue

    You can solve this with an equation

    500X – 990,000 = .15(500X)

    500X – 990,000 = 75X

    425X = 990,000

    990,000/425 = $2329.41

    So… I got the same answer as you 🙁

    BEC - 84 (5/29/15)
    FAR - 77 (8/14/15)
    AUD -
    REG -

    #683355
    nika_cpa
    Member

    Troblin what is the correct answer to your previous problem? I would think it is D, but I am not sure:)

    Becker self-study, Wiley Test Bank and books, Becker final review. NINJA MCQ bank and NINJA notes for BEC only!

    AUD - PASSED!
    FAR - PASSED!
    REG - PASSED!
    BEC - PASSED!

    #683356

    BEC - 84 (5/29/15)
    FAR - 77 (8/14/15)
    AUD -
    REG -

    #683357
    Troblin
    Participant

    @ hellosunshine ugh.. yah that was my calculation as well. The solution stem computes the per unit traceable costs – 990,000/500 = 1980 and allocates a 15% markup on it = 1980*1.15 = 2277. That doesn't seem right to me, but I haven't had a solid math class in like 10 years, so my algebra may be a little shaky.

    @nikecpa I think that the answer was A. I forgot the explanation, but it went something like this. Defective units are identified when WIP is 40% complete. No WIP at the beginning of the period, and WIP was 66% complete at the end of the period, thus defective units were identified. Since WIP units = the # of units transferred to FG, i guess it is assumed that 50% defective units allocate to WIP and 50% allocate to FG.

    If I got this question on the exam, I'd probably just guess.. haha.

    FAR: 85(11/22/2014) - Becker(full)/Ninja MCQ (5 day cram)
    AUD: 79 (2/1/2015) -Becker/Ninja MCQ/Ninja Notes
    REG: 84(4/19/2015) -Becker/Ninja MCQ/Ninja Notes
    BEC: 83 (7/13/2015) -Becker/Ninja MCQ/Ninja Notes

    Date I Got My Life Back!: 8/4/2015 🙂

    #683358
    nika_cpa
    Member

    @ hellosunshine I am assuming under 990,000 all traceable costs they assume total costs. Then 15% markup makes sense. I did the same calculation like you, but our calculation assumes that 990,000 is variable cost only. This problem is not properly worded IMHO:)

    Becker self-study, Wiley Test Bank and books, Becker final review. NINJA MCQ bank and NINJA notes for BEC only!

    AUD - PASSED!
    FAR - PASSED!
    REG - PASSED!
    BEC - PASSED!

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