Hi Everyone, I have a question that I would think would be easy for me to figure out but at least Becker is not explaining it at all.
the MCQ:
During May, Mercer Company completed 50,000 units costing $600,000, exclusive of spoilage allocation. Of these completed units, 25,000 were sold during the month. An additional 10,000 units, costing $80,000, were 50 percent complete at May 31. All units are inspected between the completion of manufacturing and transfer to finished goods inventory. Normal spoilage for the month was $20,000, and abnormal spoilage of $50,000 was also incurred during the month.
The portion of total spoilage that should be charged against revenue in May is:
a.
$70,000
b.
$50,000
c.
$20,000
d.
$60,000
The answer is $60,000, the explanation being that normal spoilage is allocated to “good production”. I thought that only spoilage that could be charged against revenue was abnormal spoilage?…
Thank you in advance!