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November 20, 2014 at 6:25 pm #190227
jeffKeymasterFree Study Planner, Notes, Audio, Flashcards: https://www.another71.com/cpa-exam-study-plan/
Free CPA Exam Survival Guide: https://www.another71.com/cpa-exam-survival-guide/
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December 31, 2014 at 9:53 pm #655434
AnonymousInactive^^
(C)
$80,000* Sales
($48,000) VC
_________
$32,000 CM
($20,000) FC
_________
$12,000** ~~~~~> 12,000** / 80,000* = 15%
December 31, 2014 at 10:15 pm #655435
AnonymousInactiveYup c is correct. the way you solved it seems much easier than the way i did originally .
December 31, 2014 at 11:55 pm #655436
JS867_5309MemberGuys – can I bump this question? I still don't get it.
Need some help with WACC when considering tax savings. There's a NINJA question asking to calculate the WACC, and the relevant debt structure is 30% with a 10% interest, subject to 30% marginal tax.
In the answer, NINJA says: “The marginal tax rate is considered in determining the cost of capital for each component that has a tax effect (such as the debt interest). Since the interest is deductible, the cost of debt is 10% less 30% tax savings, or 7%”
How on earth did they calculate that 7%???
Exam:I'm done 🙂 🙂 🙂
REG - 71 (2/22/14); 67 (4/3/14); 74 (8/29/15); 83 (2/29/16)!!!
BEC - 72 (5/24/14); 85 (1/3/15)!!!!
AUD - 72 (8/23/14); 76 (10/15/14)!!!
FAR - 77 (5/26/15)!!!Started in 2013 using Kaplan and failed REG, REG, BEC, AUD. Switched to NINJA suite in Sept 2014 and passed AUD...then BEC...then FAR!
REG took 2 tries but I finally got it in too!
I'm a hard convert - Using NINJA method with NINJA video/book/notes/MCQEducation: Check
Experience: 3 months left! I hit 4 years on May 30 🙂December 31, 2014 at 11:59 pm #655437
mtwst113MemberDid they give you any other data?
BEC | √
AUD| √
FAR| Spring 2015January 1, 2015 at 12:46 am #655438
OneGiantWarriorParticipant7% is the after-tax cost of debt
10% X 30%= 3% tax savings
10% less 3% for tax savings=7% after tax cost of debt
OR
10% X 70%=7%
January 1, 2015 at 12:57 am #655439
JS867_5309Member@OneGiantWarrior: Okay, so you figure that you're saving 10% of 30%, which is 3% (in words)? 3% is the amount of interest that is deductible, so only 7% of the interest expense is included in cost.
Correct me if I'm wrong – it's just easier for me to rationalize it in words, so I can think through the problem on test day.
I appreciate the help, but the 10% x 70% is going right over my head. How did you get to 70%?
Exam:I'm done 🙂 🙂 🙂
REG - 71 (2/22/14); 67 (4/3/14); 74 (8/29/15); 83 (2/29/16)!!!
BEC - 72 (5/24/14); 85 (1/3/15)!!!!
AUD - 72 (8/23/14); 76 (10/15/14)!!!
FAR - 77 (5/26/15)!!!Started in 2013 using Kaplan and failed REG, REG, BEC, AUD. Switched to NINJA suite in Sept 2014 and passed AUD...then BEC...then FAR!
REG took 2 tries but I finally got it in too!
I'm a hard convert - Using NINJA method with NINJA video/book/notes/MCQEducation: Check
Experience: 3 months left! I hit 4 years on May 30 🙂January 1, 2015 at 1:03 am #655440
JS867_5309Member@mtwist113: Here's the full Q&A:
A company has the following target capital structure and costs:
Debt – Portion of Capital Structure: 30%; Interest or Dividend Rates: 10%
Common Stock – Portion of Capital Structure: 60%; Interest or Dividend Rates: 12%
Preferred Stock – Portion of Capital Structure: 10%; Interest or Dividend Rates: 10%
The company's marginal tax rate is 30%. What is the company's weighted-average cost of capital?
A – 7.84%
B – 9.30%
C – 10.30%
D – 11.2%
Answer C. The weighted-average cost of capital is the weighted average of the cost of debt and the various equity components of the firm's capital structure. The marginal tax rate is considered in determining the cost of capital for each component that has a tax effect (such as the debt interest). Since the interest is deductible, the cost of debt is 10% less 30% tax savings, or 7%. Multiply the cost of each source of capital by the proportion of capital from that source, and add the results:
Debt = 0.30 x 0.07 = 0.021
Common Stock = 0.60 x 0.12 = 0.072
Preferred Stock = 0.10 x 0.10 = 0.01
These total 10.3%
FWIW, I answered D.
Exam:I'm done 🙂 🙂 🙂
REG - 71 (2/22/14); 67 (4/3/14); 74 (8/29/15); 83 (2/29/16)!!!
BEC - 72 (5/24/14); 85 (1/3/15)!!!!
AUD - 72 (8/23/14); 76 (10/15/14)!!!
FAR - 77 (5/26/15)!!!Started in 2013 using Kaplan and failed REG, REG, BEC, AUD. Switched to NINJA suite in Sept 2014 and passed AUD...then BEC...then FAR!
REG took 2 tries but I finally got it in too!
I'm a hard convert - Using NINJA method with NINJA video/book/notes/MCQEducation: Check
Experience: 3 months left! I hit 4 years on May 30 🙂January 1, 2015 at 1:26 am #655441
Shani-QMemberA firm's current ratio is presently 1.75 to 1. According to a working capital restriction in the firm's bond indenture, the firm will have technically defaulted if the current ratio falls below 1.5 to 1. If current liabilities are presently $250 million, the maximum new commercial paper that can be issued to finance inventory expansion an equivalent amount without technically defaulting is:
Select an answer:
A.
$375.00 million.
B.
$125.00 million.
C.
$62.50 million.
D.
$437.50 million.
January 1, 2015 at 1:27 am #655442
OneGiantWarriorParticipant@JS yes, that sounds good to me.
The 70% comes from 1 minus 30%. It's just a faster way of calculating the after-tax. Instead of doing 10% times 30%, then subtracting 3% from 10% to get 7%, you can just multiply 70% by 10% and get the 7%. Same concept but more convenient.
January 1, 2015 at 1:37 am #655443
JS867_5309Member@Shani-Q is it C? I tried doing some ratio equivalents to work this out, but I'm not confident it's correct.
@OneGiantWarrior – That makes sense; That's how I calculate it when I'm working with depreciation, but for whatever reason it didn't occur to me to apply it to interest deductions. It's still a little fuzzy for me, but I think if I can remember that tax savings from interest and depreciation are treated the same way in a word problem (usually), then it'll help me on Saturday. I appreciate it!
Exam:I'm done 🙂 🙂 🙂
REG - 71 (2/22/14); 67 (4/3/14); 74 (8/29/15); 83 (2/29/16)!!!
BEC - 72 (5/24/14); 85 (1/3/15)!!!!
AUD - 72 (8/23/14); 76 (10/15/14)!!!
FAR - 77 (5/26/15)!!!Started in 2013 using Kaplan and failed REG, REG, BEC, AUD. Switched to NINJA suite in Sept 2014 and passed AUD...then BEC...then FAR!
REG took 2 tries but I finally got it in too!
I'm a hard convert - Using NINJA method with NINJA video/book/notes/MCQEducation: Check
Experience: 3 months left! I hit 4 years on May 30 🙂January 1, 2015 at 1:38 am #655444
OneGiantWarriorParticipant@shani
Is it B?
(437.5+x)/(250+x)=1.5
X=125
January 1, 2015 at 1:46 am #655445
OneGiantWarriorParticipant@js. Good luck!
January 1, 2015 at 2:41 am #655446
Shani-QMemberB
January 1, 2015 at 2:43 am #655447
TarheelgirlMemberFAR - 46, 79 (7/8/14)
AUD - 56, 59, 2/23/15 3rd times a charm!
BEC - 69, 74 Really??
REG - April, I hope. Fingers crossed!January 1, 2015 at 2:46 am #655448
Shani-QMemberThe increase in the current assets due to the increase in inventories will have to be matched with the same amount of new financing in current liabilities, in this case through commercial paper. The new current ratio that results must be no lower than 1.50, so:
CA + Inc in Inv
= 1.50, where “Inc in Inv” is the increase in inventories.CL + Inc in Inv
The task is to identify all variables other than new inventory (Inv). We know that the present current ratio is 1.75, and that current liabilities are presently $250 million. Since:
CA
= 1.75, CA = $437.5m$250m
The formula then becomes:
$437.5m + Inc in Inv
= 1.50250m + Inc in Inv
So:
$437.5m + Inc in Inv = 1.5 ($250m + Inc in Inv)
$437.5m – $375m = 1.5 Inc in Inv – Inc in Inv
$62.5m = 0.5 Inc in Inv
Inc in Inv = $125m
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