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I’m looking at a question and to save the unnecessary details – it asks to solve for the amount of cash flows in “year 1” to get an IRR of 7%. Becker says do not discount year 1 cashflows at all; i say you do discount them.
Here are the details. You are given the initial capital outlay, year 2 and 3 cashflows, as well as the discount factors for years 1, 2, and 3.
Year 1’s discount factor .9346 (not 1) as provided by Becker.
In their calculations, however, they discount year 3 CFs by year 3’s factor, year 2 CFs by year 2’s factor, and then year 1’s CFs by 1.00 (and not the discount factor of .9346).
I think it’s an error on their part. The initial capital outlay is undiscounted starting at T = 0, but year 1’s cashflow is discounted (by 1.07% of year 2’s discount factor)
Can I get a sanity check?
Becker has been wrong before, but this is a quick fix. Don’t you always discount year 1 CF’s?
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