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I’ve noticed a couple separate situations and am trying to determine if my solution is correct.
In some instances the mortgage assumed by a partnership is subtracted from their basis and then the portion relating to that partner (i.e. 40% of the liability) is added back to the partner’s basis. However, I have stumbled upon some review questions where the mortgage is completely subtracted and not re-added to the basis. Is this because the partners have a controlling (80%) interest after the fact?
BEC - 84 *
AUD - 73, 76 *
REG - 70, 72
FAR - 09/08/16
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