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Topic
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The scenario:
A company uses tax depreciation (provided by an accounting firm) as its book depreciation. However, it uses Section 179 (below the limit) so it depreciates each asset in entirety when placed into use and does not amortize it over its useful life. Therefore, the company has fixed assets that still have a remaining useful life on its books but are fully depreciated thanks to using tax depreciation as its book depreciation.Net Income (and other earnings ratios) were understated in prior years but are technically overstated in the current year.
I can’t find guidance stating tax depreciation can’t be used to calculate book depreciation but I’d think it’s crazy if Section 179 can count towards book as well (doesn’t seem like US GAAP to me). Any thoughts/advice on this scenario?
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