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I was under the impression that the first lease payment reduced principal only so the interest expense would be
On January 2, Year 1, Marx Co. as lessee signed a five-year noncancelable equipment lease with annual payments of $200,000 beginning December 31, Year 1. Marx treated this transaction as a capital (finance) lease. The five lease payments have a present value of $758,000 at January 2, Year 1, based on interest of 10%. What amount should Marx report as interest expense for the year ended December 31, Year 1?
Shouldn’t the answer be $0 since the first lease payment reduces principal only? I didn’t quite understand Becker’s explanation?
Choice “b” is correct. The lease term began January 2, Year 1 on a lease valued at $758,000. The first payment of $200,000 was made on December 31, Year 1. Since the interest rate is 10% and one year has expired, Marx Co.’s interest expense is computed as 10% of $758,000 or $75,800. The remainder of the $200,000 payment reduces the obligation under the lease.
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