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So here’s a situation I’m facing that I can’t seem to get clarity on, and maybe some of you tax gurus might have ideas…
If XYZ Corporation gives a company vehicle to an employee, and that employee only uses the vehicle to commute to/from work, that’s definitely a taxable fringe benefit and should qualify for the Commuting Rule. However, if the employee pays for all the gas, does that affect the Commuting Rule?
And before you mention reducing by 5.5 cents per mile… that’s only applicable to the Cents-Per-Mile method. 🙂
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