[I'm, Ron Burgundy?]

Can someone please explain this to me via an example? For some reason I’m having a hard time grasping this concept. When a contract falls under the Statute of Frauds both parties need not sign the writing. Only the party to be charged signs the writing.

So who is “the party to be charged”?

Let’s say I have agreed to sell goods amounting to $500 to a friend. Do I have to sign the contract or does my friend?

Let’s say I agree to provide services lasting over one year to a friend, do I sign the contract or does my friend?

I’m assuming in both cases I’m going to be the one signing the contract as I’m charged with providing the services. However, a contract is a mutual agreement where both parties give something to get something. So who is charged?

"If you're going through hell, keep going"
- Winston Churchill

"I've missed over 9,000 shots in my career. I've lost over 300 games. 26 times I've been trusted to take the game winning shot, and missed. I've failed, over and over and over again in my life. And that is why, I succeed."
- Michael Jordan

BEC: (54), (72), 80 (losing credit on 02/02/15 - nervous)
AUD: 78
REG: (74), 91
FAR: (71)

[Anonymous]

The party to be charged would be your friend…the one being charged/billed for the goods.

[Anonymous]

The party to be charged would be your friend…the one being charged/billed for the goods.

[Author]

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