Hey All,
New poster here, so I hope that my question is going in the right place?
I'm working through the REG material in Becker (in section 3 atm), and I came across this question and I have no idea why the answer is what it is:
Parent Corp. owns 15% of Sub Corp. Parent has gross income of $43,000 and allowable deductions of $39,000 before considering any dividends received deduction (DRD). Included in the $43,000 gross income is $8,000 in dividends from Sub.
What is the maximum DRD available to Parent?
a. $3,200
b. $8,000
c. $5,600
d. $2,800
Explanation
Choice “d” is correct. Based on the small ownership percentage, which is below 20%, the applicable DRD rate is 70%. The total dividend is $8,000, and 70% of that is $5,600. This is limited to 70% of the taxable income before the DRD of $4,000 ($43,000 – $39,000). That limitation is $2,800 ($4,000 × 70%). So the full DRD of $5,600 is limited to $2,800.
My understanding is that we normally take the lesser of the DRD% * the TI or the DRD% * the dividend, unless the taking the full DRD will enhance or create a loss.
In this case, because the full deduction of $5,600 would create a loss, why isn't it $5,600?
Thanks!