Can someone clarify this for me? I chose D as my answer but the correct answer was C.
My reasoning: This contract needs to be in writing and signed, at a minimum, by the defendant (Zimmer). Zimmer did sign the contract. I though the one bringing the suit wasn't required to the contract and that's why I threw out C. Second, West violated the licensing requirements which made the contract void.
West, an Indiana real estate broker, misrepresented to Zimmer that West was licensed in Kansas under the Kansas statute that regulates real estate brokers and requires all brokers to be licensed. Zimmer signed a contract agreeing to pay West a 5% commission for selling Zimmer’s home in Kansas. West did not sign the contract. West sold Zimmer’s home. If West sued Zimmer for nonpayment of commission, Zimmer would be:
A. liable to West only for the value of services rendered.
B. liable to West for the full commission.
C. not liable to West for any amount because West did not sign the contract.
D. not liable to West for any amount because West violated the Kansas licensing requirements.
Am I missing something or is D the correct answer and not C?
Thanks in advance!