Porter, the sole shareholder of Preston Corp., transferred property to the corporation as contribution to capital. Two years later, Corley transferred property in exchange for a 10% interest in the Corporate stock. The property transferred was valued as follows:
Porter's Transfer:
Basis: $ 50,000
FMV: $200,000
Corley
Basis: $250,000
FMV: $500,000
What amount represents the corporation's basis in the property received?
A- $300,000 (which was my selection)
B- $450,000
C- $700,000
D- $550,000 (correct answer as per Beckers)
As per the explanation, Corley's transfer is taxable because does not met the 80% control test and the basis is the FMV.
My question is Why Corley's does not met the 80% of control test? He exchanged property for a 10% of interest on Corp stock but in general, Porter and Corley interest is 100% ( no services were rendered in order to excluded the shareholder, so I don't understand).
Any help will be very appreciated 🙂