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falizadeh.
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March 5, 2015 at 8:08 pm #192517
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March 15, 2015 at 1:35 am #677517
HollyParticipantKate – bonus accruals are only available to accrual basis taxpayers because if they were cash basis the expense is deducted when paid, so they are not eligible to have accruals.
BEC - 79
REG - 85
AUD - 5/27/16March 15, 2015 at 1:38 am #677518
KateMember@HR
*Smacks face* duh. Thank you
AUD (2/3/2015) Pass
REG (4/24/2015) Pass
FAR (8/3/2015) Pass
BEC (10/25/2015) PassMarch 15, 2015 at 1:42 am #677519
HollyParticipantIs anyone working on Becker R4 simulation #2? I have a question about task 7, number 14.
Taxpayer traded an old building (purchased 6 years ago) for a new building and fully depreciated personal property. NBV of the old building was $200,000, and FMV was $500,000. The FMV of the new building was $460,000 and the FMV of the fully depreciated personal property received with the new building was $40,000.
The part I'm questioning is when they're wanting the amount to be included on the tax return. It calls for you to fill in the blank on gain, basis, proceeds, long term short term or n/a, and amount to be included on the return.
What would you put for the amount to be included on the return? The answer is $260,000 by the way.
BEC - 79
REG - 85
AUD - 5/27/16March 15, 2015 at 2:22 am #677520
xfbztMemberMarch 15, 2015 at 4:15 am #677521
AnonymousInactiveMarch 15, 2015 at 12:29 pm #677522
GabeParticipant@CTM welcome to REG questions haha. It's true that half of SE is above the line deduction but I think the question would have either a) given you more information to calculate that amount or b) given you an answer choice that correlates with 1/2 of SE being included. And I agree some of the AICPA questions or deceivingly simple.
@Kate yes I felt the same way. It's like, oh you wanted the exception to the exception to that rule! But seriously, it gets easier the more MCQs you do and the more notes you take.
@HR I don't have that sim in front of me but from what I remember the recognized gain is included in the tax return…so
DR new 460
CR old 200
CR rec gain 260
though…would the fully depreciated personal prop be boot received? hmm. anyone?
CPA, CFE
CISA- Experience will be completed by August 2016March 15, 2015 at 12:31 pm #677523
GabeParticipant@xf- maybe. Some of the tax rules have definitely changed. I'd try and get a newer version…unless the testbank has been updated with the new tax rules/numbers/phaseouts.
CPA, CFE
CISA- Experience will be completed by August 2016March 15, 2015 at 12:47 pm #677524
HollyParticipant@Gabe yes, that' my problem with this simulation's answer – The $40,000 personal property received! I'm thinking it should be ordinary income of $40,000 for recapture, and deferred gain of $260,000.
BEC - 79
REG - 85
AUD - 5/27/16March 15, 2015 at 1:12 pm #677525
GabeParticipant@HR I'm a little hazy on depreciation recapture…does it apply to the 40k because it fully depreciated?
Also…
Davidson was transferred from Chicago to Atlanta. In connection with the transfer, Davidson incurred the follow-ing moving expenses:
Moving the household goods
$2,000
Temporary living expenses in Atlanta
400
Lodging on the way to Atlanta
100
Meals
40
What amount may Davidson deduct if the employer reimbursed Davidson $2,000 (not included in form W-2) for moving expenses?
a. $100
b. $120
c. $500
d. $520
Answer is A. Just to confirm…50% of meals/entertainment are reported on Sch A as business expenses and have NOTHING to do with moving expenses, correct?
CPA, CFE
CISA- Experience will be completed by August 2016March 15, 2015 at 1:32 pm #677526
AnonymousInactiveDepreciation Recapture is really easy once you understand it.
First, find out what the G/L is based on the straight-line basis of depreciation. Second compare that G/L with the excess depreciation taken as tax relief. Finally, take the lesser of the excess depreciation or the gain as ordinary income. The rest is a capital gain.
Example (and I'm making these numbers up so if they don't make sense based on actual straight-line and MACRS, it's not important)
Buidling bought for 400,000:
Sold for: 500,000
Straight-line depreciation 120,000
Excess Depreciation: 40,000
Gain: 220,000 (500,000 – 280000)
Of that 220,000, ordinary income is $40,000 (the depreciation recapture) and the rest is capital.
Basically if the excess depreciation is greater than the actual gain, you take the whole gain as ordinary income.
Basis: 400,000
Sold for: 300,000
Depreciation: 120,000
Excess Depreciation: 40,000
Gain: 20,000 (300,000 – 280,000)
Since the Gain is only 20,000, it's all going to be ordinary since there is nothing left over to go as a capital gain.
Does that make sense? Did I explain it correctly?
March 15, 2015 at 1:34 pm #677527
AnonymousInactiveOne other dumb thing I remember my Tax Professor saying all the time:
We want our income to be capital and our losses to be ordinary. That gives us the best results for taxes since capital gains are at preferred rates and ordinary losses to reduce our higher tax rate income.
That's why the Depreciation Recapture rules are so important. They determine what we get as preferential, capital, income and what is higher taxed, ordinary, income.
March 15, 2015 at 1:38 pm #677528
AnonymousInactiveGabe:
Correct: $100
Meals are not included as moving expenses. As my professor said “Everyone has to eat.” So it's something you would be doing even if you were not moving.
March 15, 2015 at 1:48 pm #677529
GabeParticipantAngel- that was amazing. Thanks 🙂 It's amazing the things that stick with us from professors. The “everyone has to eat” one will definitely help me remember that…
Was going over depreciation recapture and it seems pretty straight forward, unless you're talking about sec 1250 then it gets kinda funky…
Basically ordinary up to depreciation then capital. Yeah? (that is REALLY basic but yeah…)
Here is the Ninja notes example:
involuntary conversion:
amt received- $125
new building- $110
old building- $100
dep- $14
basis= $86
Real Gain= $39 (amt rec – basis)
Rec Gain= < of real gain OR amt not reinvested (or, $125-$110= $15)
Rec gain= $15
Ord. gain= $14
1231 LTCG= $1
CPA, CFE
CISA- Experience will be completed by August 2016March 15, 2015 at 2:04 pm #677530
GabeParticipantLobster, Inc., incurs the following losses on disposition of business assets during the year:
Loss on the abandonment of office equipment $ 25,000
Loss on the sale of a building (straight-line
depreciation taken in prior years of $200,000) 250,000
Loss on the sale of delivery trucks 15,000
What is the amount and character of the losses to be reported on Lobster's tax return?
Answer: $290k 1231 loss
Why isn't it $240 1231 loss? I thought you could only take loss up to depreciation?
CPA, CFE
CISA- Experience will be completed by August 2016March 15, 2015 at 2:31 pm #677531
Svitlana85MemberCan someone please explain to me the carryforward of Excess 179 expense and AMT Paid?
179 we deduct $25,000 for equipment costing $200K or less. So what is carried forward?
For AMT we pay what we owe in AMT over regular tax liability. What is carried forward?
Thank you! *About to have a nervous breakdown* LOL
CPA Excel/Wiley/Ninja Notes/MCQs
FAR Feb 2014 85
AUD Aug 2014 88
BEC Nov 2014 85
REG Feb 2015 71 Retake April 16, 2015 -
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