@cpa8488, I am just using Becker.
So say an individual has $50,000 of PALs and $25,000 of rental income. He DOES actively participate/own 10% blah blah blah. The first $25,000 of that loss offsets the $25,000 of income. That leaves a $25,000 loss that he can deduct against his ordinary income because he qualifies for Mom and Pop.
The only way to make it more complicated would be if he had AGI of say $110,000. $5,000 of that $25,000 would be phased out if that were the case, leaving $20,000 remaining loss to offset other income.
Does that make sense? Anyone think this is wrong? All that being said, Becker provides no examples of this case, and I think we are getting worked up over something that tends to be straightforward in all the MCQ I have seen.