Hi,
I encountered this question on Wiley. I am not understanding why only if CEP is negative would we have to allocate the CEP
$30,000 ($20,000) $18,000
AEP CEP distribution on 7/1
answer is :The AEP available for distribution on July 1 is $30,000 − (1/2)($20,000) = $20,000. As a result, the $18,000 July 1 distribution is a dividend, leaving $2,000 of AEP at July 1 which is then reduced by the remaining one-half of the $20,000 loss for 2014, resulting in an AEP deficit of $8,000 at the beginning of 2015.
but why when we are given a positive CEP, we don't need to do half of the CEP being available for distribution, it seems only if CEP is negative?
Does anyone have any insight on this?
Thanks