REG Study Group July August 2013 - Page 86

Viewing 15 replies - 1,276 through 1,290 (of 1,892 total)
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  • #440036
    Jennifer241
    Member

    @Cubdom847

    I would assume that the 100,000 + 100,000 was paid in cash, of which the problem states part of it was interest, so that would lead me to believe that part of the 200,000 principle was still unpaid, so the buyer then got a loan for an additional 50,000.

    So when it's all said in done, he got 100,000 at closing + 100,000 in cash the next year, and received the 50,000 from the buyer in year two when the buyer got a loan, making the sale price be 250,000.

    FYI I don't like this question, interest payments are reported as interest income on Schedule B, not included in the purchase price to calculate the gain on a sale.

    AUD - Jan 9,13 Pass
    REG - Aug 30,13 Pass
    BEC - Oct 26,13 Pass
    FAR - Dec 4,13 Pass

    Licensed CPA in the state of Oregon

    #439908
    Anonymous
    Inactive

    ahh….. thnx Jennifer so if we were to calculate GP % and the amount received in year 1. Would it be GP % = 66% (e.g. 165,000/250,000) and amount received 66,000, or do you subtract the liability from the denominator making it GP% = 82.5% and amount received $82,500?

    #440037
    Anonymous
    Inactive

    ahh….. thnx Jennifer so if we were to calculate GP % and the amount received in year 1. Would it be GP % = 66% (e.g. 165,000/250,000) and amount received 66,000, or do you subtract the liability from the denominator making it GP% = 82.5% and amount received $82,500?

    #439910
    Heidi-O
    Member

    FAR Aug 2012 79
    AUD Oct 2012 84
    REG Aug 2013 87
    BEC Jan 2013 80

    #440039
    Heidi-O
    Member

    FAR Aug 2012 79
    AUD Oct 2012 84
    REG Aug 2013 87
    BEC Jan 2013 80

    #439912
    Anonymous
    Inactive

    Anyone in here studying for an October exam? I failed REG in July so i'm picking it back up now. Sitting October 5th. Starting back studying tomorrow. Final push!

    #440041
    Anonymous
    Inactive

    Anyone in here studying for an October exam? I failed REG in July so i'm picking it back up now. Sitting October 5th. Starting back studying tomorrow. Final push!

    #439914
    Heidi-O
    Member

    CPAForeigner NO!! I thought you would have made it. I'm so sorry. 🙁 But I am happy to see you passed BEC!!

    Still, another trip to the mainland for you. Sorry to hear that. I was hoping for you!

    FAR Aug 2012 79
    AUD Oct 2012 84
    REG Aug 2013 87
    BEC Jan 2013 80

    #440043
    Heidi-O
    Member

    CPAForeigner NO!! I thought you would have made it. I'm so sorry. 🙁 But I am happy to see you passed BEC!!

    Still, another trip to the mainland for you. Sorry to hear that. I was hoping for you!

    FAR Aug 2012 79
    AUD Oct 2012 84
    REG Aug 2013 87
    BEC Jan 2013 80

    #439916
    Anonymous
    Inactive

    @Heidi-O Thanks! I am sorry too. But i'm really glad I still passed BEC so taking two was still worth it. I would of had to go back up anyway if I had taken one and at least now, i've taken REG once before so I am a little more prepared to tackle this beast. I'm going to push myself knowing this will be my last exam and I will finally pass the CPA exam. 🙂

    Good luck to you with your REG score!

    #440045
    Anonymous
    Inactive

    @Heidi-O Thanks! I am sorry too. But i'm really glad I still passed BEC so taking two was still worth it. I would of had to go back up anyway if I had taken one and at least now, i've taken REG once before so I am a little more prepared to tackle this beast. I'm going to push myself knowing this will be my last exam and I will finally pass the CPA exam. 🙂

    Good luck to you with your REG score!

    #439918
    Heidi-O
    Member

    CubDom847 To add a little to Jennifer's explanation: It states in the problem that they were “assuming” the 50,000 mortgage on the property – that means that the owner of the property had a 50,000 mortgage and the buyers were going to assume that mortgage. So that makes the gross sale amount of 250,000.

    If we followed through the transaction, they would receive 150,000 this year (the down payment and the assumption of the mortgage). Next year, they would get 100,000 plus any interest income that would receive from the loan to the buyer – the interest would be classified as interest income.

    The GP% is 66%.

    Don't worry, assignment of mortgages comes up in business law. Fun, Fun, Fun!!! (yuck..) 🙂

    FAR Aug 2012 79
    AUD Oct 2012 84
    REG Aug 2013 87
    BEC Jan 2013 80

    #440047
    Heidi-O
    Member

    CubDom847 To add a little to Jennifer's explanation: It states in the problem that they were “assuming” the 50,000 mortgage on the property – that means that the owner of the property had a 50,000 mortgage and the buyers were going to assume that mortgage. So that makes the gross sale amount of 250,000.

    If we followed through the transaction, they would receive 150,000 this year (the down payment and the assumption of the mortgage). Next year, they would get 100,000 plus any interest income that would receive from the loan to the buyer – the interest would be classified as interest income.

    The GP% is 66%.

    Don't worry, assignment of mortgages comes up in business law. Fun, Fun, Fun!!! (yuck..) 🙂

    FAR Aug 2012 79
    AUD Oct 2012 84
    REG Aug 2013 87
    BEC Jan 2013 80

    #439920
    Kodiak
    Member

    Okay REGulators, I'm struggling with the Dividend Received Deductions (DRD) application rules. I'm using the Yaeger lectures and did not care for how Phil explained it. The Wiley book isn't really helping either.

    I guess what's tripping me up is the rules on when to apply the reduction to either taxable income or the dividends received, and what type of situation dictates this. For example if the DRD creates a loss then…. or if you have a loss after Sales-COGS then you apply it to… that sort of thing. I'm just struggling on how to apply it given different scenarios. I know there's got to be a simple way to understand this.

    Can somebody explain it in simple terms, the way they understand it? Thanks!

    AUD - Pass
    FAR - Pass
    BEC - Pass
    REG - Nov

    #440049
    Kodiak
    Member

    Okay REGulators, I'm struggling with the Dividend Received Deductions (DRD) application rules. I'm using the Yaeger lectures and did not care for how Phil explained it. The Wiley book isn't really helping either.

    I guess what's tripping me up is the rules on when to apply the reduction to either taxable income or the dividends received, and what type of situation dictates this. For example if the DRD creates a loss then…. or if you have a loss after Sales-COGS then you apply it to… that sort of thing. I'm just struggling on how to apply it given different scenarios. I know there's got to be a simple way to understand this.

    Can somebody explain it in simple terms, the way they understand it? Thanks!

    AUD - Pass
    FAR - Pass
    BEC - Pass
    REG - Nov

Viewing 15 replies - 1,276 through 1,290 (of 1,892 total)
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