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I’ve got Property Transactions taxation down, but I’ve been skipping questions that ask about stock transactions where there are stock splits and the resulting basis. Here’s a couple of examples from Ninja MCQ:
Greller owns 100 shares of Arden Corp., a publicly traded company, which Greller purchased on January 1, Year 2, for $10,000. On January 1, Year 9, Arden declared a 2-for-1 stock split when the fair market value (FMV) of the stock was $120 per share. Immediately following the split, the FMV of Arden stock was $62 per share. On February 1, Year 9, Greller had his broker specifically sell the 100 shares of Arden stock received in the split when the FMV of the stock was $65 per share. What is the basis of the 100 shares of Arden sold?
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Carter purchased 100 shares of stock for $50 per share. Ten years later, Carter died on February 1 and bequeathed the 100 shares of stock to a relative, Boone, when the stock had a market price of $100 per share. One year later, on April 1, the stock split 2-for-1. Boone gave 100 shares of the stock to another of Carter’s relatives, Dixon, on June 1 that same year, when the market value of the stock was $150 per share. What was Dixon’s basis in the 100 shares of stock when acquired on June 1?
In your experience should I dedicate some time to understanding this specific portion of Prop Taxation?
Thanks in advance.
Alex
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