I'm a little confused…
I studied with Becker for the majority of my REG studies but bought the Wiley on-line test bank last week and have been using that in addition to Becker.
I was my understanding, according to Becker, that when you had a liquiditing property dividend that your basis in the property would be equal to your basis at the time of the dividend. So say you had a basis of 5,000 rec'd property from the corp with a basis to the corp of 7,000, your basis would be 5,00. “Zero out to get out”
But then I'm working through some of the Wiley sims and its telling me on a liquidating dividend that your basis in the property is equal to the FMV or the property.
I'm probably just missing something. Can anyone help on this?