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My exam is a few days away and I could really use some help on this. I think I wrote down from one of the Test Bank answers that when a corporation makes a non-liquidating distribution of appreciated property to a shareholder, regardless of AEP, that shareholder recognizes a gain as if it was received from a 3rd party.
First of all, is that even accurate? If so, does that override the whole concept of the distribution being: 1. Dividend to extent of CEP and AEP 2. Return of basis 3. Gain recognized to the extent distribution exceeds basis
This is REALLY giving me a headache… maybe I just made this up in my notes and have it wrong. I would GREATLY appreciate some clarity on this.
Thanks!
FAR - 2012 - PASSED (YAEGER)
AUD - 2012 - PASSED (YAEGER + NINJA NOTES)
BEC - 2012 - PASSED (YAEGER + NINJA NOTES)
REG - 2013 - PASSED (YAEGER + NINJA NOTES + NINJA AUDIO)ETHICS - 2013 - PASSED
DONE!!! Thank you A71 for all the support! Hiya!!!
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