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I came across this answer explanation (this is an explanation to an incorrect answer).
“This answer is incorrect because a subsequent bona fide purchaser will not defeat a prior perfected secured interest in consumer goods for which a financing statement has been filed. Such a purchaser will only defeat a prior perfected security interest that was perfected through automatic perfection by attachment.”
So wait a minute, this says there is actually a difference between a prior perfected secured interest through filing and through automatic perfection. If a security interest is perfected, why does it matter if it is perfected through a filing statement?
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