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For non-qualified options without a readily ascertainable value, Becker says that “on the date of exercise, the employee recognizes ordinary income based on the fair market value of the stock purchased less amounts paid (if any) for the option. The basis of the stock is the actual exercise price plus any ordinary income recognized.” Assuming that the employee didn’t pay anything for the option, his ordinary income would be equal to the FMV of the stock. So then his basis would be equal to the exercise price plus the FMV (i.e. the ordinary income recognized)? That doesn’t seem right to me…that would almost be like double-counting the basis to a certain extent. Is this worded incorrectly, or am I misreading it?
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