[Anonymous]

Am I correct in my understanding that a bank IS liable, to drawer, on a postdated check IF drawer has given notice to bank of post dated check?

The reason I question this is because I have found 2 contradictory problems/solutions in Wiley book. I know its not uncommon for them to have a few problems wrong but in both instances the question states that drawer has notified bank and then the answer says incorrect unless drawer has notified bank prior to postdating. Example below

“An Individual fills out his personal check. He postdates the check for ten days later, notifies his bank of the postdated check, and notes on the face that it is for “Payment for textbooks”

“Choose Correct or Incorrect”

“18. If bank pays on this check before its stated date, the bank is liable to drawer.”

“Answer – Incorrect – The bank Is not liable unless the drawer has given the bank prior notice of the postdating.”

I’ve probably wasted more time on this than its worth; but I’m just making sure I’m not going crazy from all of the studying.

[nolifecpa]

You are correct and not going crazy. Looks like another wiley typo

REG-65,71,74,73,70,74,79
BEC-60's,60's,69,71,76*,78
FAR-67,66,65,79
AUD-54,60's,65,83*,69,80
*expired

DONE

[Anonymous]

Thanks. Ya, Wiley has plenty of them. It's bad when I have to mark questions wrong with a giant red asterisk because I may be right and the book actually wrong.

[Author]

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