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Topic
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Which of the following statements correctly describes the requirement of insurable interest relating to property insurance? An insurable interest:
A. must exist when any loss occurs.
B. must exist when the policy is issued and when any loss occurs.
The correct answer is A.
The “insurable interest” doctrine has been developed to prevent individuals from purchasing insurance in the hopes that the insured property be damaged or destroyed. Although in most instances the insurable interest requirement is satisfied by “ownership,” this is not always the case (for example, a long-term lessee may have an insurable interest). The common law requires that the insurable interest in property exist at the time the loss occurs.
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But WHY? Doesn’t it make sense that you have insurance on something before hand and if something happens to the property, you are covered? By having insurance right when the loss occurs sounds wrong and more like fraud.
Thank you guys!
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