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I’m reviewing results from yesterday’s practice exam–I take REG for the third time on Monday morning Jan 4th.
Let me preface this by saying, I thought property transfers to corporations were always valued at donor’s adjusted basis, and only in rare situations at FMV….I’m generalizing, I realize :(.
Below is the question & answer to question 1575—can someone please help me understand why the first sentence of the answer is correct?
Q:
Porter, the sole shareholder of Preston Corp., transferred property to the corporation as a contribution to capital. Two years later, Corley transferred property to the corporation in exchange for a 10% interest in corporate stock. The property transferred was valued as follows:
Porter’s Transfer Corley’s Transfer
Basis $50,000 $250,000
Fair market value 200,000 500,000
What amount represents the corporation’s basis in the property received?
A. $700,000
B. $550,000
C. $450,000
Incorrect D. $300,000
ANSWER:
When property is transferred to a corporation, the basis of any property received is the FMV at the time of the transfer. Porter’s transfer two years ago had a FMV of $50,000, but the current FMV does not have an impact on the corporation’s basis in the property. The basis in Corley’s contribution is the current FMV, and their basis in the property does not affect the corporation’s basis. The total basis in property contributed to the corporation is the $50,000 original contribution (FMV) from Porter, plus the $500,000 current contribution (FMV) for Corley, which equals a total of $550,000.
Thank you VERY much Ninjas!
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