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First off thanks in advance for any thoughts
Probably reading too much into this but anyway I know that a plaintiff in a securities suit re the Act of ’33 has to prove, he bought the security, suffered a loss and there was a material misstatement, therefore doesn’t have to prove negligence. Yet in the Wiley Test Bank text they state Due Diligence as a defense (which Ive seen before) see their text below
1] “Due diligence,” that is, after reasonable investigation, the accountant had reasonable grounds to believe and did believe that statements were not materially misstated.
NOTE: Although the basis of liability is not negligence, an accountant who was at least negligent will probably not be able to establish “due diligence.”
And again later on they state The plaintiff need not prove negligence or fraud.
Seems like if you say hey Im not liable I performed my Due Diligence ie I wasn’t negligent but yet negligence isn’t required……as stated, it seems if there was a material mistake, I bought the shares, I suffered damages you, accountant, are liable Due Diligence ie Negligence or not. Period.
What am I missing?
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