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It starts out like:
Brian Cartwright is a single taxpayer who itemizes deductions and has no dependents. In Year 4, he earned wages of $200,000 from Brandise Corporation, a newly-formed C Corporation of which he is the sole shareholder and only employee. Brandise is not considered to be a personal service corporation or a personal holding company.
In addition, since Year 1 Brian has owned a 50% interest in Technology Plus, Inc., an S Corporation from which he was paid a salary and received distributions in Year 4 (each paid according to the ratio of ownership). Brian is also a 10% limited partner in Wonderland Resorts, a limited liability partnership, which paid him no distributions in Year 4 and in which he had a $300,000 basis at year-end Year 3.
Technology Plus, Inc. and Wonderland Resorts, LLP each issued Brian a K-1 for Year 4 (detail provided below). Brian also received 1099s for taxable interest income from banks in the amount of $3,500 and $15,000 in gambling winnings from a casino.
In addition, Brian owns a fully-depreciated residential rental unit that had income of $25,000 and deductible expenses of $20,000. There are no passive loss carryforward amounts.
Brian made no pension or IRA contributions of any kind for Year 4 and does not plan to do so. He had verifiable gambling losses of $27,000 and is not considered a professional gambler. In Year 3, Brian created a long-term capital loss carryforward from the sale of stock in the amount of $35,000.
Details related to 100% of the activity in Brian’s investment holdings follows:
Then a bunch of numbers but my copy past doesn’t work.
I do not understand how they came up with $1,000 for income from rental real estate, royalties , partnerships, etc.
Their calculation is 5,000+5,000-(3000)-(6000).
Please help me!!!
AUD----92 5/31/12
FAR----92 7/3/12
RED----85 8/3/12
BEC----?? 8/29/12
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