REG Study Group – Q2 2018 - Page 11

Viewing 15 replies - 151 through 165 (of 301 total)
  • Author
    Replies
  • #1787460
    DoubleBogey
    Participant

    If I had a (5000) capital loss in year 1
    1000 capital gain in year 2
    and a 4000 capital gain in year 3
    for an individual, how is there NONE of the year 3 $4000 deducted as capital loss carryforward? Sorry it's so piecemeal. Something wouldn't let me copy paste the question and answers.

    #1787485
    CS
    Participant

    @jsdailey. The reason is because in the first year you absorb (3000) of the (5000) loss against ordinary income. Then in year 2 you offset the 1000 gain with the remaining carryover (2000) loss for a (1000) loss against ordinary income. Thus the (3000) and (2000) are used up and none is available for year 3, hope this helps. The same question tripped me up because I had been studying Corp tax cap gain and loss and was focused on that without reading the question.

    #1787637
    DoubleBogey
    Participant

    Ohhhhhhh, I feel really dumb now. Individuals can offset capital gains and ordinary income with capital losses

    #1787655
    Anonymous
    Inactive

    If this question were a liquidating distribution, would the answer be different?

    Sample Question: CPA-04733
    Owen's tax basis in Regal Partnership was $18,000 at the time Owen received a nonliquidating distribution of $3,000 cash and land with an adjusted basis of $7,000 to Regal and a fair market value of $9,000. Regal did not have unrealized receivables, appreciated inventory, or properties that had been contributed by its partners. Disregarding any income, loss, or any other partnership distribution for the year, what was Owen's tax basis in Regal after the distribution?
    a. $9,000
    b. $8,000
    c. $7,000
    d. $6,000

    Choice “b” is correct. In a nonliquidating distribution, the partner's basis is reduced first by the amount of cash received and then by the adjusted basis of any property received. Thus, Owen's basis after the distribution is determined as follows:

    $18,000 Owen's beginning basis
    (3,000) Cash received
    (7,000 ) Basis of property received
    ——–
    $ 8,000 Owen's adjusted basis after the distribution
    =======

    Choices “a”, “c”, and “d” are incorrect per the above explanation.

    #1787665
    CPAfit
    Participant

    If adjusted current earnings (ACE) exceeds alternative minimum tax income (before the ACE adjustment), then 50 percent of this difference is used as an adjustment for calculating alternative minimum tax income.
    True
    False

    #1787683
    Anonymous
    Inactive

    ANSWER: False

    If adjusted current earnings (ACE) exceeds alternative minimum tax income (before the ACE adjustment), then 50 percent of this difference is used as an adjustment for calculating alternative minimum tax income.
    True
    False

    #1788541
    CPAfit
    Participant

    The stock in Brown Corporation is owned 60% by Joan and 40% by Becky. Joan and Becky are not related. Becky and Joan transferred a parcel of land that they owned to Brown in Year 2, and 18 months later, in year 3, Brown liquidated and transferred all of the land to Joan. At the time of contribution in year 2 the land had a fair market value of $100,000 and adjusted basis of $140,000. In year 3, at the time of liquidation, the value of the land had declined to $70,000. How much loss can Brown Corporation recognize on the distribution?

    $ 0
    $40,000
    $42,000
    $70,000

    #1788543
    CPAfit
    Participant

    The stock in Brown Corporation is owned 60% by Joan and 40% by Becky. Joan and Becky are not related. Becky and Joan transferred a parcel of land that they owned to Brown in Year 2, and 18 months later, in year 3, Brown liquidated and transferred all of the land to Joan. At the time of contribution in year 2 the land had a fair market value of $100,000 and adjusted basis of $140,000. In year 3, at the time of liquidation, the value of the land had declined to $70,000. How much loss can Brown Corporation recognize on the distribution?
    $ 0
    $40,000
    $42,000
    $70,000

    #1788562
    DoubleBogey
    Participant

    On involuntary conversions, is the basis in the new property always the basis in the disposed property? Every problem I've see so far has the basis in the new property to be the basis in the old property after a “deferred gain”.

    #1788832
    Anonymous
    Inactive

    @CPAfit:
    Is the correct answer $70,000?
    The reason being corporation recognizes G/L as if it sold the assets for the FMV, which is the 1st tax:
    $70,000 ……………..FMV
    <$140,000> ………..<Basis>
    —————-
    $<$70,000> …………. Loss
    ==========
    The stock in Brown Corporation is owned 60% by Joan and 40% by Becky. Joan and Becky are not related. Becky and Joan transferred a parcel of land that they owned to Brown in Year 2, and 18 months later, in year 3, Brown liquidated and transferred all of the land to Joan. At the time of contribution in year 2 the land had a fair market value of $100,000 and adjusted basis of $140,000. In year 3, at the time of liquidation, the value of the land had declined to $70,000. How much loss can Brown Corporation recognize on the distribution?
    $ 0
    $40,000
    $42,000
    $70,000

    #1789158
    msquared17
    Participant

    @tncincy – how is the studying going? What chapter are you on now? I think a separate thread is a good idea – LOL. I haven't studied for about a week. I'm picking it back up today and starting over. Plan is to read the chapters, mqc, sims. I still don't like writing notes so instead I will make notes in the book and flash cards for troubled items.

    #1789335
    Anonymous
    Inactive

    Under a divorce settlement, Joan transferred her 50% ownership of their personal residence to Jim. The joint basis of the residence was $200,000. At the time of the transfer, the property's fair market value was $300,000. What was Joan's recognized gain and Jim's basis for the residence?

    Recognized gain Basis
    a. $50,000 $250,000
    b. $50,000 $300,000
    c. $0 $200,000
    d. $0 $300,000

    Answer is c. Why no gain though?

    #1789806
    Anonymous
    Inactive

    ‘’HIDE IT’’ or ‘’WRAP IT’’
    Divorce Property Settlement
    A divorce settlement that covers the lump sum payment or property settlement is a nontaxable event. The basis of the new property will be the carryover basis.

    Divorce settlement is nontaxable to the recipient and nondeductible to the giver.

    #1790563
    walid6500
    Participant

    Is it correct that a long term capital loss from an S-Corp is entered twice on form 1120s ( but not entered in ordinary income computation ) and k-1 ?

    #1791046
    Tim
    Participant

    Got NTS in January for AUD and REG because I wanted to get it processed before that NASBA outage, otherwise I would have waited until March to get a longer window. So now if I don't want to pay another ~$300 I need to take REG by July. Now I'm studying for REG but I broke my right hand needing a cast for 6 weeks and I'm right-handed, also been really sick for the last few weeks, and I'm getting married Memorial day (2.5 weeks away). I would love to take a month off studying and take the test in August since the score release would be the same anyway but really don't want to waste $300. Bleh, first world problems I guess. If not for NASBA outage it wouldn't have been a problem, though.

Viewing 15 replies - 151 through 165 (of 301 total)
  • The topic ‘REG Study Group – Q2 2018 - Page 11’ is closed to new replies.