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Topic
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I have a question for the crowd here as I am confused about a particular risk relationship.
Given:
Client gets involved in new type of material transactions that they have little experience in.
Obviously inherent risk goes up.
The question(s):
Does detection risk also go up too? because technically (w/o the auditor increasing testing) there’s a greater probability for a material misstatement.
Or am I thinking about this wrong and the CPA would have to lower detection risk because inherent risk went up, but detection risk doesn’t go up (w/o action by CPA) just because inherent risk goes up?
Confused.
Thanks to anyone that understands this well and would be willing to help clarify.
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