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I am always confused about calculating the unrealized g/l on trading securities..should it be calculated as market value – cost or changes in market value? The following 2 questions from Becker calculated the unrealized g/l differently:
1. At the end of year 1, Lane Co. held trading securities that cost $86,000 and which had a year-end market value of $92,000. During year 2, all of these securities were sold for $104,500. At the end of year 2, Lane had acquired additional trading securities that cost $73,000 and which had a year-end market value of $71,000. What is the impact of these stock activities on Lane’s year 2 income statement?
– Answer: Gain of $10,500. Which includes realized gain on securities sold of 12,500 (SP 104,000 – CV 92,000) and Unrealized g/l of -2,000 (FMV $71,000-Cost of $73,000).
2. Sun Corp. had investments in marketable equity securities costing $650,000. On June 30, Year 2, Sun decided to
hold the investments indefinitely and accordingly reclassified them from trading to available-for-sale on that date.
The investments’ market value was $575,000 at December 31, Year 1, $530,000 at June 30, Year 2, and
$490,000 at December 31, Year 2. What amount of loss from investments should Sun report in its Year 2 income statement?
– Answer: $45,000 loss should be reported in the Year 2 income statement. Calculation:FMV12/31/YR 1 of 575,000 – FMV 6/30/YR2 of 530,000.
As you can see, the first problem calculated the unrealized g/l using FMV – Cost, and the second question calculated the unrealized g/l using changes in FMV. I don’t understand why it is treated differently. Am I missing anything here? Can anyone please kindly explain?
Thanks.
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