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Sorry dumb question but this is confusing me a bit. On the Wiley we have this example:
Trading Securities:
U.S. Government Bonds – Cost = $100,000 Fair Value = $110,000
Municipal Bonds – Cost = $70,000 Fair Value = $85,000
Available-for-Sale securities:
Equity securities – Cost = $110,000 Fair Value = $80,000
THEN after the transfer we get:
Trading Securities:
U.S. Government Bonds – Cost = $100,000 Fair Value = $110,000
Available-for-Sale securities:
Equity securities – Cost = $110,000 Fair Value = $80,000
Municipal Bonds – Cost = $85,000 Fair Value = $85,000
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My comment is that up to this point everything is good, I understand, however, then I have this (on Wiley):
Assuming that the adjusting entry to report changes in fair value for the current period is not yet recorded, the entry to record the transfer is as follows:
D) Available-for-Sale Securities 85,000
C) Unrealized Holding Gain-Income 15,000
C)Trading Securities 70,000
My issue is that this looks misleading since in any transfer from Trading to any other category there is no adjustment necessary because the gain or loss has already been recognized in income. In my view shouldn’t this JE just show a debit to “AFS Security” for $85,000 & credit to “Trading securities” for $85,000? I know Wiley states that “assuming the JE entry is not yet recorded” when giving this JE example but still, this is a bit confusing. Am I missing something obvious here?
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