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Hi,
I thought I send you a post through here instead of posting it under the “Ninja MCQ accounting income tax help ” topic. I did not get answer from you regarding your response to my question on the Ninja MCQ, so I asked a Becker professor. This is the response: “
This question is asking about 2002. Think of it this way, if the DTA is written down to 0 in 2001, then there is nothing left to carry forward to 2002. In that case the JE for 2002 is:
debit income tax expense 360,000
Credit income tax payable 360,000.
Total income tax expense is the same. Yes, if we reverse the valuation account in year 3 then we would add the following:
debit valuation account 120,000
Credit income tax benefit 120,000
This would result in total income tax expense of 240,000. However the question does not say we reversed the valuation account and you should not assume that. So 360,000 is the answer that was desired by the AICPA on the exam. There was some dispute about this question, which is why you will notice in the Becker material we do not talk about them not being sure about earning income in the future to take this issue away from the calculation of the 3rd year tax expense. The rules have evolved on this – while it is clear when you create a valuation allowance it is not as clear when you reverse it. And you don’t assume that you will reverse it here. “
So now, I am confused.
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