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Hi all,
Quick question about intangible assets. In one of the practice questions I was working on, they expensed all of the fees (purchase price + acquisition costs + legal fees) that were used on a patent that was unsuccessfully defended in court.
Is this correct? By expensing all the costs, it seems like we’re saying that the patent is worthless. Shouldn’t you only expense the legal fees related to the unsuccessful defense and test this intangible asset for impairment?
Thanks for the help in advance,
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