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Q: Glade Co. leases computer equipment to customers under U.S. GAAP direct-financing leases. The equipment has no residual value at the end of the lease and the leases do not contain bargain purchase options. Glade wishes to earn 8% interest on a five-year lease of equipment with a fair value of $323,400. The present value of an annuity due of $1 at 8% for five years is 4.312. What is the total amount of interest revenue that Glade will earn over the life of the lease?
The answer is $51,600. They do this by taking the FV equip/PV factor=annual lease payment, then multiple the payment by the 5 years to get the total lease amount collected. Then subtract out the FV of the equip to get the Int Rev. I get the annual lease payments x number of years, but why do they divide the FV of the equip by the PV factor? For bonds/notes I’m used to taking the stated rate x the face amount to get the annual payment. Is that why, because there is no stated/effective rate for this since it’s not a bond/note?
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