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Topic
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Hi everyone, long time lurker to this forum (which has been helpful in finding answers to most of the questions I don’t understand) and this is my first post hoping that someone can help me understanding how they came up with that answer.
Gei Co. determined that, due to obsolescence, equipment with an original cost of $900,000 and accumulated depreciation at January 1, 1992, of $420,000 had suffered permanent impairment, and as a result should have a carrying value of only $300,000 as of the beginning of the year. In addition, the remaining useful life of the equipment was reduced from 8 years to 3. In its December 31, 1992, balance sheet, what amount should Gei report as accumulated depreciation?
A. $600,000
B. $100,000
C. $520,000
C. $700,000
Explanation
Choice “d” is correct. When a permanent impairment occurs, the book value is reduced and a loss is recorded. The loss is credited to accumulated depreciation. In addition, the current year’s depreciation expense should be added. The new book value is depreciated over the new life.
Accumulated depreciation, 1/1/92 $ 420,000
Loss ($900,000 – 420,000) – 300,000 180,000
Depreciation for 1992 ($300,000 / 3) 100,000
Accumulated depreciation, 12/31/92 $ 700,000
I understand where the numbers came from but don’t really understand why we have to add the $180,000 to accumulated depreciation. As far as I understand, if we have a permanent loss we would debit the loss and credit the equipment.
Thanks!
B -September 8, 2016
A -?
R -?
F -August 1, 2016
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