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Can someone explain this answer. I am confused how they actually got it.
“An asset with a market value of $125,000 and a cost of $110,000 is leased on 1/1/x1. The lease is a sales-type lease for the lessor. Five annual lease payments are due on December 31 beginning on 12/31/x1. The asset will have no residual value. The lessor sets a rate of return of 6%.
Present value factor of an ordinary annuity for five years at 6% 4.21236
Present value factor of an annuity due for five years at 6% 4.46511
Present value factor of a single sum for a five-year term at 6% .74726
What amount will the lessor charge the lessee in annual lease payments?
A. $27,995
B. $29,675
C. $93,408
D. $25,000
This Answer is Correct
Correct! The lessor’s calculation of the lease payment is $125,000 = lease payment × (PV factor of an ordinary annuity for 5 years at 6%). $125,000 = lease payment × 4.21236. Lease payments will be $29,675 each.”If you take pv of ordinary annuity you do not get 29.675. When you multiply 125000*4.21236 you get 526545. What am I missing?
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