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I’m reading the question and answer explanation and basically none of this makes any sense. Will doing more MCQ help, or should I go to a library and read up on government accounting?
New Town’s review of payroll records indicates that employees providing governmental services have accrued $250,000 of vacation pay and employees of the proprietary funds have accrued $100,000 of vacation pay. It is anticipated that 5% of the accrued vacation pay will be claimed by employees within the first 60 days of 20X1. How would the vacation pay liability be recognized on the financial statements issued at December 31, 20X0?
A. Governmental fund liability: $12,500; Proprietary fund liability: $100,000; Governmental activities liability: $250,000; Business-like activities liability: $100,000
B. Governmental fund liability: $12,500; Proprietary fund liability: $5,000; Governmental activities liability: $250,000; Business-like activities liability: $100,000
C. Governmental fund liability: $12,500; Proprietary fund liability: $100,000; Governmental activities liability: $12,500; Business-like activities liability: $100,000
D. Governmental fund liability: $250,000; Proprietary fund liability: $100,000; Governmental activities liability: $250,000; Business-like activities liability: $5,000
Answer A. As employees earn the right to claim vacation pay, a compensated absence, the liability is accrued and reported in full in the proprietary fund and government-wide financial statements (governmental activities and business-like activities). The portion reported in the government-wide financial statements as governmental activities is a general long-term liability. The governmental funds, using the modified accrual method, report only the portion of the liability expected to be claimed by employees in the first 60 days of the new fiscal year.
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