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I know this has been discussed a lot here, but I need some light to conform with my understanding.
Scenario 1
US parent company that has a sub in Europe, the functional currency (the currency of the primary market which it operates in) is the Euro and the sub reports it’s F/S in Euros then I’ll just translate and plug the adjustment to OCI.
Scenario 2
US parent company that has a sub in USA, the functional currency (the currency of the primary market which it operates in) is the US $ but the sub is keeping records in Euros then I’ll just remeasure and plug the adjustment to the I/S.
Scenario 3
US parent that has a sub in Europe, the sub is trading in Rupees so in this case I’ll just remeasure to the functional currency (Euro) then translate to the US $ which is the reporting currency.
Scenario 4
US company parent or a subsidiary that has some individual transactions in Euro, the company’s functional currency is the reporting currency ($) then I’ll just remeasure and record foreign transaction G/L in the IS, is that correct?
Scenario 5
US parent that has a sub, both have transactions in the same currency (reporting currency) then i’ll do nothing, is that correct?
Are all the scenarios above correct or am I missing something, I’d appreciate any help that makes this topic more easy to understand for me.
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