Hi everyone! I have a question about troubled debt restructuring. I just did this problem in Becker:
“On January 1, Year 1, Gearty Corporation loans Olinto Fabrix, Inc. $200,000 with a 10% simple interest note payable in ten years. Interest on the note is payable annually and the principal is due at the end of the term. On January 1, Year 3, Olinto has yet to pay any interest and approaches Gearty in the hope of renegotiating the terms. Gearty agrees, forgives the interest on the note accrued to date, and reduces the interest to 8 percent.”
In the solution, they used the PV of $1 at 10% for 8 years to discount the principal, and the PV of an annuity at 8% for 8 years to discount the interest payments, and summed those two numbers to get the PV of the renegotiated note ($178,760).
My question is, why do you use the renegotiated rate to discount the interest but not the principal?